❌ No results found
Published on: May 6, 2008
In September we will become happy parents. What we are wondering is if there is any prayer we can perform for the newborn.
Thank you for contacting us. There are several general prayers that can be used in connection with childbirth. Here are some examples: “Rabbi hab li milla dunka dhurriyyatan tayyibatan innaka sami ud-dua”. Translation: “My Lord, grant me a pure offspring! You are the Hearer of prayer.” (Quran, 3:38)
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: January 26, 2009
I had a question about zamzam. Some say that you should give zamzam to newborns. Is that true? I understand that it is okay to give zamzam until the child is a few weeks old. But should you give it the day the child is born, I am very unsure? From what I have read, it is important that a newborn only gets milk from the mother, especially at the beginning, if the child gets anything else it can in a way ruin breastfeeding. It can cause the child to lose the desire for breast milk. I am a little confused, you hear so many stories that you should do this and that. If you can answer whether it is something healthy or not, that would be great.
It’s just nice that you ask. It’s important to ask about things in Islam that you’re unsure about.
The Quran is in Arabic because it was revealed in Arabic, which was the language of the Prophet (peace be upon him), just as other holy books were revealed to prophets in their respective languages. Moreover, Arabic is a language that is quite rich with several variations of different words, unique inflections, concepts, etc.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: May 6, 2008
What is the best way for a Muslim, who is interested in his religion (but is busy with university studies, and lacks teachers, or teachers who have time), to learn about his religious duties? Is it obligatory for every religious person to read many Islamic texts? Is it wrong if one likes to examine evidence/sources [p. valid rulings] closer, as this entails increased conviction and higher ambitions?
The obligation to a morally responsible Muslim is to use his efforts to learn what is obligatory for him to know, and includes: ‘aqida (statements of faith), purification, prayer, fasting, buying and selling and everything that affects him because of his profession or work, such as being a doctor. If he does not learn this, he is sinful. The purpose of making this obligatory is to make one’s worship and work valid through [p. the knowledge of] its constituents and conditions. Acquiring knowledge beyond this is a sunnah. And let it also be said that the acquisition of knowledge about the obligatory is not limited to reading a text or a book. It is possible that one will get answers to one’s questions about the obligatory knowledge, such as questions about ‘aqida or about a ruling that affects one’s personal worship or work. The best way, however, to understand the rulings is to attend knowledge-based fiqh courses regularly, taught by a qualified person.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: May 31, 2011
Assalama-o-alaikom my question is if some parents forcefully put Quarn-e-Pak in their daughter's stomach and forcefully take half of it and marry her where her residence is, of course her parents know that she wants to marry someone else, then what is the law for this? And if the girl took half of it by pressing her hand in, what is the forgiveness for this, please forgive me.
Thank you for contacting us. There are several general prayers that can be used in connection with childbirth. Here are some examples: “Rabbi hab li milla dunka dhurriyyatan tayyibatan innaka sami ud-dua”. Translation: “My Lord, grant me a pure offspring! You are the Hearer of prayer.” (Quran 3:38)
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: August 16, 2012
The girl I'm going to marry uses her mother's name as her last name, how is this when you're going to do nikah and what is most correct, from what I've heard it's most common for children to have their father's last name, are there any exceptions here? And what's most common when a girl gets married and is going to change her last name, I've googled this a bit and it says that the girl shouldn't remove her father's last name and that this is a sin but how should I approach this when the girl doesn't use her father's last name at all? Hoping for an answer.
There is no requirement for girls, or boys, to have a surname after their father. A person’s full name can even be without a surname. In general, one can have an arbitrary name as long as it does not have a meaning that conflicts with the fundamentals of the Islamic faith.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: March 19, 2013
Can you explain a little bit about what Sharia is? In short, what is Sharia, where in the world is Sharia practiced, and is the Sharia that is practiced as it is described from a religious standpoint (does it have any basis in the Quran)?
Sharia is the divine law. It is a set of rules that God commands humans to live by. It makes clear to us what we should do and what we should not do, and its rules are intended to protect humans from evil and to make all aspects of their lives useful and enjoyable. Sharia is an all-encompassing expression of Allah’s will for both the spiritual and social lives of humans through commandments, prohibitions, or permissions.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: September 24, 2008
Is it necessary or obligatory to have an iqama before prayer for those of us who pray at home? I live alone and pray alone so I believe that an iqama is not necessary. If an iqama is necessary, do I have to recite it out loud or silently? And how do you recite the iqama? In Muslim countries, they do not have to have an iqama before prayer?
The Iqamah is not a requirement when praying alone at home. However, Imam al-Haskafi says: “It is makrooh (disliked) for the traveler to leave both (the adhan and the iqamah), even when praying alone… unlike the one who prays in a town or village where there is a mosque, regardless of whether the prayer is offered in congregation or not. It is not makrooh to leave the adhan and the iqamah, as the adhan of the area is sufficient for him.” (al-Durr al-Mukhtar, 2/63, Dar al-Kutub al-Ilmiyah Beirut)
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: January 21, 2009
Lately, I have been missing my prayers for no reason. I don't know what is wrong with me. It seems like I have just forgotten the importance of prayer. I was wondering if you could remind me of the importance of the reward for praying and at the right time. Likewise, remind me of the punishment for missing prayers with the intention of catching up and missing them altogether. I remember from the past that this type of information had a great influence on me.
In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful. The Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “The first thing that will be judged of a person’s deeds on the Day of Judgment is prayer. If it is in order, he will pass the test and succeed. If it is defective, he will not pass the test and will be a loser.” (Tirmidhi) Abdullah bin Amr bin al-As said that one day the Prophet (peace be upon him) mentioned prayer by saying: “If someone takes his prayers seriously, it will be a light, proof and salvation for him on the Day of Judgment. But if one does not take his prayers seriously, it will not be a light, proof or salvation for him. And on the Day of Judgment he will be associated with Qarun, Pharaoh, Haman and Ubayy bin Khalaf (a great enemy of Islam among the Quraish). (Ahmad, Darimi and Baihaqi)
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: May 21, 2009
I have some basic questions about namaz (according to Hanafi fiqh). What I'm wondering is when you read 4 muakkadah sunnah, and 4 ghair muakkadah sunnah, should you read verses from the Quran in the 3rd and 4th rakaht? I know that you only read in the first 2 rakaht in farz. But I'm a little unsure about sunnah. And possibly in what order should you read surahs from the Quran in namaz? And when you read 4 ghair muakkadah sunnah, should you read durood sharif when you sit in 2 rakaht, before standing up for the 3rd? Is it obligatory? Or are there divided opinions about reading durood sharif or not?
1) It is obligatory (wajib) to recite both Surah al-Fatiha and another Surah (or at least 3 verses) from the Quran in the first two units (rak’ahs) of the fard prayer and in all units of the wajib, sunnah or nafl prayers. In the last two units of the fard prayer, it is sunnah (read: according to the custom of the Prophet, peace be upon him) to recite only Al-Fatiha. Nothing else is permissible to recite after that.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: September 10, 2009
There are three times when it is not allowed to pray, what are these? and does it only apply to prayer or also for example tilawat of the Quran, darood, dua etc.
There are three times when it is not permissible to perform prayer (salah): When the sun rises until it has risen above the horizon. This lasts for about 20 minutes after sunrise, which is the end of the fajr time. When the sun is at its zenith and is at its highest point in the sky until it has left this point and begins its descent (zawal time). This occurs for a very short time. However, since it is difficult to determine exactly when this occurs, it is best to avoid praying within a 20-minute period before the time for the zuhr prayer begins.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: September 14, 2009
I have a question. When we read tarawih, sometimes we have to go into sajda when the imam reads something special from the Quran. What I'm wondering is, what is it that they read that is so special? and What is the meaning/meaning of it?
There are 14 verses in the Quran called ayat al-sajdah (the prostration verses). They are as follows:
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: September 17, 2009
The Eid prayer
https://wim.no/bonn-salah/295-id-bonnen
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: May 30, 2007
Many brothers send questions via e-mail regarding shaking hands with women in professional settings, saying that not doing so will harm or hinder their ability to function. Perhaps they will not be hired, promoted, or accepted into professional fields (such as the legal profession) where Muslim presence is required. I checked what some prominent traditional fuqaha [Islamic jurists], including those from Pakistan and some of my teachers in Damascus, had to say, and they are very firm in their views. However, the brothers who have asked say that such answers are based on little understanding of “Western realities.” They say that it is not possible to function in a Western professional work environment without shaking hands with women. What would you answer and advise regarding this issue, Sayyidi?
Assalamu alaykum In the name of Him who inspires truth! No, it is not permissible to shake hands with the opposite sex at all. There are many narrations from the Prophet (peace be upon him) where he never shook hands with any woman, despite his status as a prophet. All the allegiance [bay’ah] he took was either without holding hands or with a piece of cloth tied around it. He explicitly informed the women when they extended their hands to him that he did not shake hands with women. [See Muhammad Ibn Sa’d, The Women in Madina, Chapter 1: The manner in which the Messenger of Allah received women’s allegiance] Consequently, we cannot find anything to go on to change this rule. Many non-Islamic professions are prevalent in the business and commercial world. We are constantly asked whether it is permissible to sit at the same table as a client where alcohol is served; whether it is permissible to hold private meetings with women behind closed doors without a third person present, performing zuhr instead of jumu’ah if one is busy with meetings when it is time for khutbah; taking off the hijab to seek employment; shaving the beard for such reasons and so on; not to mention interest-based loans. This list is endless. So, how can a person want to be assimilated, and sell the afterlife for something that is short-lived, the life on earth. Yes, certain fatwas (legal rulings) are to be found on these matters from so-called scholars. Much of the religion has already been put at stake. We know of a mosque in a city in California where “Islamic Dating” is being promoted. Their practice is supported by seemingly convincing logical arguments that sound very attractive, but how far can one take the matter, and how much of the religion will remain if this course continues to be followed? No one has said that following religion in the 21st century is easy; whether one is in a Muslim country or in the West. Did not the Prophet (peace be upon him) say that there will come a time when a person who follows his religion will be like one holding on to a burning coal, and did he not say that this world is a prison for a believer and a paradise for a non-believer? One must remember that through perseverance and abstinence from sin [sabr ani’l-ma’siyah] there are great rewards to be earned, despite the apparent financial or similar losses one may incur in this world. The average American and Westerner [since shaking hands with a woman is a bigger issue in America and the West] is usually very understanding and attuned to other people’s religious requirements. If informed in a polite manner, they will normally act with understanding and are prepared to be more accommodating. If scholars start offering caution and tolerance for certain matters that are strictly clarified in the Shari’ah by excusing themselves that we live in modern times, how will the original rulings in these matters be renewed? Sunnah and correct customs will be lost forever and innovations will take over. Those who try to adhere to the correct rulings of the Shari’ah in these matters will feel isolated and weak. Therefore, it must be emphasized that the traditional jurists who are unable to give discretion in such matters do not do so out of narrow-mindedness or ignorance. It is only to keep the religion intact and complete. Yes, if someone in certain situations is forced to act contrary to the Sunnah, it is a personal problem where tawba [repentance] should be made. Allah will guide whoever fears Him, and He knows best. Translated by Khudija Mahmood, source: sunnipath.com
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: June 2, 2007
I have a question about wireless internet. Would it be wrong for me to use another network without telling them? With today's wireless capabilities on laptops, you can easily connect to another wireless network (if they haven't locked it) without actually doing any significant harm to the owner. But would it still be wrong?
Waleikum assalam wa rahmtaullah, I hope that you are well and in the best of health and good spirits. May Allah grant you goodness and success in this life and the next. The legal basis for this in Shariah is that one cannot make use of another’s property without their permission. This permission can be given explicitly or implicitly. In most countries, no such implicit permission is given for strangers to use people’s private wireless networks. In fact, this is quite often against the law, and is generally perceived as unethical as studies have shown. When there is no explicit permission to use another’s property, a Muslim is religiously obligated to exercise caution, because it is another’s property and it is not permissible to use their property without explicit or clear implicit permission. [al-Bahr al-Ra’iq, 8:209 from Abu al-Layth al-Samarqandi’s ‘Uyun al-Masai’l; al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya, 2:290 from al-Muhit; Ibn Abidin, Radd al-Muhtar, 4:285 (‘Illmiyya ed.) from Sharh al-Wahbaniyya and al-Khaniyya] The basis of this issue is the words of the Prophet of Allah (peace be upon him): “The property of a Muslim is not permissible to take without their permission” [narrated by Ahmad, and others] And Allah alone grants success. Translated by Omar T, source: sunnipath.com
Answered by: Omar T
Published on: July 11, 2007
If you were teaching a class of both female and male youth who are from Muslim backgrounds, would it have been acceptable to teach them even if one or two of them were adults and did not wear the hijab?
Walaikum assalam I hope you are in good health and in good spirits. This follows the ruling of enjoining good and forbidding evil. The essential reason for enjoining good and forbidding evil is to increase good and reduce evil. This should be done after clear thinking and careful consideration of the situation and of the possible outcomes. Until one is certain that one’s words or actions are beneficial (at least confirming the truth, even if it is not heard) and without harm, one should not act. The scholars draw this from the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him): “Whoever believes in Allah and the Last Day, let him say what is good or remain silent.” [Bukhari and Muslim] Imam Nawawi (may Allah be pleased with him) said; Every legally responsible person should refrain from speaking except when there is a clear benefit from speaking. When speaking and not speaking are equally beneficial, it is Sunnah to remain silent, because permissible speech easily leads to what is unlawful and provocative, which in fact happens most of the time, and it is no substitute for safety. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever believes in Allaah and the Last Day, let him speak what is good or remain silent.” This Hadeeth, whose authenticity is agreed upon by Bukhari and Muslim, is an explicit legal text indicating that a person should not speak if what he is going to say is not good, i.e. its benefit is clear and evident to him. When there is doubt as to the benefit of speaking, one should not say anything at all. Imam Shafi (may Allah be pleased with him) said: “One should first think about the matter, and if one is benefited by speaking, one should speak, but if one doubts, one should remain silent until the benefit becomes clear. [Nawawi, al-Adhkar as translated by Shaykh Nuh Keller, Reliance of the Traveller, r.1.1] The Most Important of the Rules Enjoining Good and Forbidding Evil Enjoining good and forbidding evil is one of the most important Islamic duties. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) warned us, “Enjoin good and forbid evil or Allah will make the worst of you rule over the best of you, and the best of you will displace Allah and be left in uncertainty.” Scholars believe that enjoining good and forbidding evil is obligatory if one believes that the person will listen. However, if one believes that the person will not listen, it is recommended. However, if greater harm or a worsening of the situation is feared, it is better (even obligatory in some cases) not to speak. something, because one lawfully chooses the lesser of two evils. It would be obligatory, however, to hate evil in one’s heart. With this, if it is going on in one’s presence (something like listening to unlawful speech) it would be obligatory to leave if stopping (for example, discreetly changing the subject) the conversation is not possible. Likewise, if a sister is not covered properly, one cannot allow oneself to look at her hair or limbs. Likewise, if a brother is wearing very tight trousers, one cannot look at the (very tight) area between the navel and the knees. Sayyidi Abd al-Ghani al-Nabulsi (may Allah be pleased with him) warns that the general prophetic in enjoining good and forbidding evil is to do so in a discreet, non-specific manner, in order to spare the honor and feelings of the wrongdoer as much as possible. [from Sharh al-Tariqa al-Muhammadiyya, Sayyidi Abd al-Ghani al-Nabulsi; Radd al-Muhtar, Allama Ibn Abidin; al-Hadhr wa’l Ibaha, Shaykh Khalil al-Nahlawi] Waleikum assalam Translated by Azim Qureshi, source: sunnipath.com
Answered by: Azim Qureshi.
Published on: August 20, 2007
Assalamu alaikum. I would like to know if it is permissible to go to the cinema? Lisa
In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful! Going to the cinema cannot be without things that are disliked or simply forbidden in Islam, including: – looking at naked or semi-naked pictures of women and/or men – erotic and/or sexual scenes – music, which according to most scholars is haram to listen to These are things that are a common denominator for all cinemas. Therefore, it is impossible to find a cinema that does not show films that contain this type of morally destructive things. From this it is clear and obvious that going to the cinema is hardly forbidden in itself. One can go to the cinema to watch a film that has a good message and sensible teachings. The prerequisite is that it is free from all that is unlawful. Since this is almost completely impossible, it is usually concluded that it is not permissible to go to the cinema. For it is a general rule in Islam that in addition to something being forbidden, everything that can lead to the forbidden is also forbidden or discouraged. So that one has the least possible risk of ending up in the forbidden. It is not that one has no leisure activities in Islam, or that one should not have fun. Islam is for sensible games and leisure activities that serve one’s physical health and/or common sense, and is against everything to the contrary. And Allah knows best. Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: May 12, 2007
What does Islam say about interest and loans?
“O you who believe, fear God and forgive usury, if you are believers. If you do not, then war has been declared upon you from God and His Messenger. But if you turn back, then you may keep your original capital. Do not wrong, and you shall not be wronged. If anyone is in difficulty, then give respite until things improve. But to forgive as a gift is best for you, if you but knew.” [2:278-80]
Answered by: Azhar M
Published on: May 30, 2007
Many brothers send questions via e-mail regarding shaking hands with women in professional settings, saying that not doing so will harm or hinder their ability to function. Perhaps they will not be hired, promoted, or accepted into professional fields (such as the legal profession) where Muslim presence is required. I checked what some prominent traditional fuqaha [Islamic jurists], including those from Pakistan and some of my teachers in Damascus, had to say, and they are very firm in their views. However, the brothers who have asked say that such answers are based on little understanding of “Western realities.” They say that it is not possible to function in a Western professional work environment without shaking hands with women. What would you answer and advise regarding this issue, Sayyidi?
No, it is not permissible to shake hands with the opposite sex at all. There are many narrations from the Prophet (peace be upon him) where he never shook hands with any woman, despite his status as a prophet. All the allegiance [bay’ah] he took was either without holding hands or with a piece of cloth tied around it. He explicitly informed the women when they extended their hands to him that he did not shake hands with women. [See Muhammad Ibn Sa’d, The Women in Madina, Chapter 1: The manner in which the Messenger of Allah received women’s allegiance]
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: May 22, 2007
Assalaam alaikum, Shaykh, my question is regarding sisters. If one’s sister is unmarried and due to her picky nature, it seems unlikely that she will get married in the near future, does the responsibility regarding her welfare lie on her father’s shoulders? Considering that she is actually in her mid-30s and her father is in his mid-60s. She works and socializes as she wishes, but she is punctual in her salah (prayer) etc. And I know for sure that she only socializes with her Muslim sisters. The fact that she has refused all the marriage proposals makes my father sinful and the sin in return will fall on me, her younger brother (but the elder of two brothers).Also, I intend to study abroad, the responsibility for my sister will fall on my head if my father passes away, considering the independent nature of women (my sister most definitely included) in the West. For example, I am almost certain that she would not travel abroad with me, and I would probably not be able to afford it (as I am married myself). Shaykh, sorry for the awkward way I have written my question, it is more of a request for advice than a formal question. In any case, thank you for taking the time to consider and hopefully offer a solution to my situation.
In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful. Dear brother, Refusing marriage: Your sister’s refusal to marry is not a sin. Nor is your father to be held responsible if his daughter refuses to marry. Nor is there any sin on you if your sister refuses to marry. That is her prerogative.
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: May 30, 2007
A woman had her monthly bleeding, which lasted only one day. After this, she has white discharge that lasts only one day. Often she has bleeding that lasts one or two days. Based on this, she does ghusl. However, since she still assumed that her bleeding might start again, she waited until the end of the prayer time before performing ghusl. By chance, she missed this prayer. Two days later, the bleeding started again, which lasted six days. Considering that her period of purity between these bleedings did not last fifteen days at a time, she counted it as a period of bleeding of ten consecutive days, should she make up her prayers? Secondly, considering that she has had a period of bleeding for ten days, during which she has made up the prayers (qada) for two days, can these prayers be included? She made up (i.e. made up) her prayers during these days, as she did not know that her period was not completely over.
To answer this question and other questions related to menstruation, one must know the basic principles of menstruation. Namely: 1. The minimum menstrual period is three days. This means that if the bleeding stops for less than three days, it will not be considered menstruation.
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: June 2, 2007
I would like to know what kind of obligations a husband has towards his wife in terms of providing her with separate accommodation. This husband allows his wife to live with his family, which results in her having to share all the household facilities with the rest of his family (kitchen, bathroom). This causes many problems for his wife and she also has no privacy. The husband has the opportunity to provide her with her own accommodation and facilities, but he does not. The wife is having a hard time. Can you please explain from outside the Hanafi school of law how this problem can be resolved? I have heard that Hanafi scholars have guidelines in this area, where it is reported that one's wife has the right to her own accommodation. Is this true?
Sharia has given certain rights to a husband and similarly wives have certain rights. Spouses often fail each other in giving each other their rights. This often leads to conflicts and sometimes marriages break up.
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: June 21, 2007
I recently received the following from someone who is trying to follow the religion sincerely but does not know how to respond to this. I would greatly appreciate your help. May Allah reward you all immensely for all that you do for the ummah: I came across this hadith and was very saddened: Narrated Ibn ‘Abbas: The Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “I was shown the Fire of Hell and the majority of its inhabitants were ungrateful women.” It was asked, “Do they not believe in Allah?” (or are they ungrateful to Allah?) He replied, “They are ungrateful to their husbands and ungrateful to the kindness and good (charitable good deeds) done to them. If you always do good (deeds) to one of them, and if she sees something in you (that she does not like), she will say, “I never received any good from you.” Sahih Bukhari, Volume 1, Book 2, Number 28 Throughout their lives, women tolerate injustices from their husbands. 99% of women are treated like slaves. Islam does not allow women to complain, or react against the injustices committed by their husbands, or misbehave with them, as they do. If women do any of this, Hellfire will be their destiny!! Please comment.
Dear Questioner, I pray that you are in good health and iman. The Hadith literature is a rich and fascinating glimpse into the life of the Prophet (peace be upon him). One of the most incredible aspects of this literature is the fact that many women took part in the preservation and transmission of the Prophet’s legacy.
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: September 28, 2007
Assalamu alaikum, I wanted to get clarification on the explanation given by Shaykh Nuh regarding the proof for wearing the hijab. This is a topic that has been debated a lot since the hijab ban in France and I am now unsure where the claim comes from. Assalamu alaikum, I wanted to get clarification on the explanation given by Shaykh Nuh regarding the proof for wearing the hijab. This is a topic that has been debated a lot since the hijab ban in France and I am now unsure where the claim comes from. Shaykh Nuh writes: “There is no other lexical meaning in which the word khimar can be constructed. The wording that is commanded, however, and that they should draw their head coverings over their chests, sometimes confuses those who are not specialists in the science of the Qur’an, and indeed, interpreting the Qur’an sometimes requires a deep knowledge of the historical circumstances surrounding the various verses that were revealed. In this case, the elliptical form of the divine command is because the women who lived at the time of the revelation wore head coverings tied behind their necks, as some village women still do in Muslim countries, leaving the front of the neck uncovered, as well as the opening (Ar. singular jayb, plural juyub, translated as “breast” in the verse above) at the top of the garment. The Islamic revelation confirmed the practice of covering the head, understood from the use of the word khimar in the verse, but also explained that the tradition of that time was not sufficient and therefore the women tied the head covering in front and let it cover down to hide the neck and the opening of the garment at the top.” I am a little confused as to how the wording used in these individual verses is considered an order. My previous understanding regarding the evidence for hijab was that the specifics of the order came from the hadith in Abu Dawood regarding the Prophet (peace be upon him) emphasizing to Asma that only the face and hands should be shown. Could you please clarify what makes the wording/grammar in the verses referenced above that makes them evidence for the wearing of hijab obligatory? I am not sure how the word “khimar” alone is used as evidence that hijab is required.
In the name of Allah, the Most Merciful, the Merciful. Praise be to Allah. May the peace and blessings of Allah be upon our beloved Prophet. Dear sister, The commandment of hijab is obvious when we examine the grammatical structure of this verse: إِلاَّ مَا ظَهَرَ مِنْهَا وَلْيَضْرِبْنَ بِخُمُرِهِنَّ عَلَى جُيُوبِهِنَّ
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: May 6, 2008
Salaam aleekum I'm wondering what rules apply after a miscarriage. Are they the same rules that a woman follows after a normal birth? For example, the 40 days and such? Does it matter how far along a woman was before the miscarriage?
Thank you for your inquiry. The same rules apply to miscarriage as to normal birth. It does not matter how far along the woman is before the miscarriage occurs.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: October 17, 2007
Can you have sex with your wife after her period has ended, but before she has taken a shower? What if her period ends a few days earlier than normal. What then? Thank you.
All praise belongs to Allah, the Almighty. Peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad, the last of the prophets, and may God be pleased with all the followers of Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) and his progeny. Thank you for submitting your question. Regarding intercourse after menstruation, it is important to consider the following: If menstruation ends after ten days, which is the maximum menstrual period, then there is no problem in having intercourse with one’s wife before she has performed ghusl (shower/bath).
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: October 6, 2008
salam o'alaikom Sometimes when I finish praying when I check below I find some mist like deposit on the tip of my private part, do I have to do wudu again and do the salat again or should I just do wudu for the new salat. Jazakom Allahwakhair
Thank you for your inquiry. Since this happens irregularly as you describe in your inquiry, there are two scenarios: 1. That it happens before or during salah 2. Or after salah
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: October 29, 2008
salam o3alaikom I have a question about ghusl, I know that you should start with wudu first, then ghusl comes. but when I do ghusl and I have gas in my stomach and I let it out, do I have to do wudu and ghusl again or should I finish ghusl and just do wudu again. Then I have another question. every time I wake up I find something in my underwear but I'm not sure if it's Mani, Madhi or Wadi so it always ends up with me doing ghusl, and sometimes I find it quite tiring. I apologize for the way I've written it, but I hope dear brothers that you can answer me on this. wasalam o3alaikom
Thank you for submitting your question. Wudu before ghusl is not necessary, but rather a sunnah. One does not need to repeat wudu after ghusl, regardless of whether one has performed wudu before ghusl or not, unless one has done something that invalidates wudu. In other words, ghusl is valid even if one has not performed wudu before it, or if one releases air from one’s stomach during ghusl.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 10, 2008
Hi, I have a question regarding sexual intercourse within Islam. I am wondering if as a girl I have to make myself clean (pak/tahir) in the same way after sexual intercourse as after menstruation? or is there a difference, or is there something else I also have to do in addition? Another thing I was wondering was, do I need to become clean (pak/tahir) after intimate activity in the genitals, but without sexual intercourse taking place? [The italics are an adapted rewording of the original text]
Thank you for your inquiry. Ghusl is obligatory if one or more of the following conditions are present: Ejaculation that occurs only due to shahwah (sexual desire), and not for any other reason. This applies both in the form of a “wet dream” or in a waking state. There is no distinction between men and women here.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: December 11, 2008
What is the quickest way to perform ghusl while fulfilling all the requirements related to purification? I am talking about ghusl which is required for intercourse, menstruation, etc. Thank you
Ghusl (ritual shower) becomes obligatory on three occasions: After sexual intercourse, whether it leads to ejaculation/orgasm or not. After ejaculation/orgasm that occurs due to sexual desire. At the end of menstruation and postpartum period.
Answered by: Mohammad Juned
Published on: December 16, 2008
Why do we have to trim our pubic and armpit hair? Do we have to continue to do so?
Al-Salam `alaykum, The hair in the lower abdomen and below the elbows should be removed. It is disliked to let it grow until it becomes long. It is recommended to do this on a weekly basis, ideally on Fridays (before the Friday prayer). Extending this to at least once every 15 days is not disliked, but beyond this is blameworthy, and later than 40 days is sinful. (Tahtawi, Hashiyat al-Tahtawi ‘ala al-Maraqi al-Falah)
Answered by: M. Azhar
Published on: August 2, 2011
Salam. I work in Sogn&Fjordane. Should I follow Oslo? The days here are extremely long in August. Is there any disp. that I can follow Saudi A?
Thank you for your inquiry. We recommend that you follow local times for both prayers and fasting to the extent possible. If the area you are in (Sogn og Fjordane) is not significantly different from Oslo in terms of sunrise and sunset, you must fast according to local dawn and sunset.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: August 23, 2012
Hi. I was fasting but broke it when my wife and I started having fun. I have heard of kaffara but what is it?
Thank you for your inquiry. The answer depends on what you mean by ‘cozy’. If you have broken your fast through sexual intercourse, you must both make it up (make qada) after Ramadan and make amends for it, i.e. kaffarah. Kaffarah is fasting for two consecutive months. If you fail to fast for one day during these two months, you must start over again.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: September 1, 2011
Salam o alaikum warehmatollah. In Maraqi `l Sa`adat by Abu`l Ikhlas al Shurunbulali it says the following about breastfeeding and fasting: "A pregnant women or nursing woman, with the condition for each that she have a legitimate fear (note 1) for the baby or for herself is exempted from fasting in Ramadan" Note 1: For the sick person, pregnant woman, and nursing woman, the condition for permissibility of breaking the fast is not simply a delusion of potential harm, but rather a legitimate fear, recognized by the Sacred Law. This entails either (1) past experience, even if of someone else with the same illness (2) an obvious sign of potential harm, or (3) an opinion of a qualified Muslim physician who does not sin in public. The same would apply for a healthy person who has a legitimate fear, based on one of the above indications of becoming ill (Tahtawi2: 355, Durr 2: 116). Ibn Abideen adds that if one were to break the fast without one of the above indications, then he would have to perform expiation while most people are unfortunately completely unaware of this ruling (Radd: 2:116) In Imam Nawawi's book al – Maqasid it is simply stated: Breast-feeding women who apprehend harm to herself can omit fasting. We do not have the opportunity to ask a qualified Muslim doctor who is knowledgeable in Sharia. We have asked previously, and it does not seem that the person concerned cares at all about Sharia rules and would prefer that one not fast at all.
Thank you for your inquiry. Mashallah, you have gone into this matter thoroughly and included some of the most important references in this issue. I believe the answer lies in your question.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: September 18, 2007
Salaam ale kum. We are some girls who have been discussing a bit about what is permissible and not permissible while fasting. But there was one thing that we could not find an answer to. Is it permissible to kiss when fasting?
Thank you for contacting us! Kissing who? I assume you mean your spouse. Yes, it is permissible to kiss your spouse while fasting provided that you have control over yourself and your emotions, so that it does not lead to sexual intercourse or something that invalidates the fast.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: September 20, 2007
What is the main reason why we fast? Siddique
All praise belongs to Allah, the Almighty. Peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad, the last of the prophets, and may God be pleased with all the followers of Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) and his progeny. Thank you for your question. That was a big question in a short sentence. Below, insha’Allah, we will try to understand why we fast. And Allah alone grants success. Fasting is one of the five pillars of Islam. This speaks volumes about its importance and central place in Islam. The commandment to fast is stated in the Quran in the following words:
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: September 29, 2007
Aslama_o_ ALikum I am wondering if it is permissible to wear lenses while fasting. It is like contact lenses, you have to wear them in your eyes to see better. I was really wondering about this so please answer me quickly. Thanks in advance
All praise belongs to Allah, the Almighty. Peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad, the last of the prophets, and may God be pleased with all the followers of Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) and his progeny. Thank you for submitting your question.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: February 14, 2013
salam! I am a 20 year old girl and am not married yet. My question is can I travel to hajj with my father and mother? or one must be married to travel. wasalam.
There is no requirement to be married to go on Hajj. You can therefore go on Hajj with your parents.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: August 14, 2013
Assalam aleykum, a lady who is in the process of divorce and has come to the conclusion that they are separated. Wants to go on umrah, is it possible to go unaccompanied. What if her brother and father do not want to go with her? Because she chose to end a marriage that did not work. And which was initially forced! Thanks in advance!!!
Assalamu alaikum, Thank you for your inquiry. It is not permissible for a woman to travel for Hajj or Umrah without being accompanied by a mehram. The requirement of a mehram for a woman during travel is not waived for Umrah.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: September 21, 2016
Is Hajj fard for me if my husband does not want to go with me because he does not prioritize Hajj?
Thank you for your inquiry. If your husband does not accompany you on Hajj, you can make this journey with another mahram, for example your father, brother, etc.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: June 24, 2007
Is the Prophet, peace be upon him, a healer of diseases? I came across a way of sending blessings (salaam) to the Prophet, peace be upon him, which describes him as a “healer of diseases and medicine for hearts.” Is it permissible to portray the Prophet, peace be upon him, as a “healer of diseases”? And is this way of sending blessings different from that in Salat al-Tibbiyya?
Know that the school of Ahl al-Sunnah takes the position that it is obligatory to attribute all actions to Allah the Exalted. The Quran is clear about this when it says: “Allah is the Creator of all things” (39:62). “And Allah created you and what you do” (37:96). “Say everything is from Allah” (4:78).
Answered by: Khurram Khan
Published on: September 28, 2007
I need guidance and advice regarding protection against human black magic and evil jinn. I have been having problems for a while now. Where can I get guidance and advice?
Black magic (sihr) is something that definitely exists and causes harm to people. The Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) was also affected by black magic. A Jew named Labid ibn Asim who outwardly pretended to be a believer (munafiq, hypocrite) performed black magic on the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him).
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: June 20, 2008
What are jinn, and what do they mean in daily life?
Allah mentions the jinn in the following way in the Quran: “We created the jinn before from blazing fire.” (15:27) The jinn are also part of Allah’s creation, and will, just like humans, have to answer for their actions on the Day of Judgment.
Answered by: M Azhar
Published on: October 6, 2008
Salamoalaikom I was wondering that when we read la ilaha illallaho Muhammad darsololla and when we read Muhammad darasolollah then why do we kiss our eyes. Salamoalaikom
Thank you for your inquiry. Kissing the thumbs and rubbing them over the eyes after hearing “ash’hadu anna Muhammadar-rasul Allah” in the adhan is an action characterized as mustahabb by many scholars.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rahman Naz
Published on: November 28, 2008
What does Islam have to do with "Healing"?
Thank you for your inquiry. The term healing encompasses many different methods, but I assume you mean different forms of alternative medicine or that which falls outside of regular medical practice.
Answered by: Noman Ahmed
Published on: December 9, 2008
According to some, the Prophet (peace be upon him) is present everywhere, as well as omnipresent like Allah, while other schools say that this is not the case. Can you clarify for me the TRUE ISLAMIC position on this matter based on traditional Islam? I have recently read some articles that explain that, yes, the Prophet (peace be upon him) is hazir and nazir because he receives darood from the angels and possesses the power to receive salaam from everyone in the entire world, which makes him hazir and nazir, meaning everywhere and at all times...
This debate is foreign to me. Authentic hadiths confirm that Allah makes the Prophet (peace be upon him) acquainted with the deeds of his people. Thus, it is “as if” he is present, through his knowledge of the actions of his people.
Answered by: M. Azhar
Published on: April 26, 2009
Salaam aleekum. I have a small question. What is sadqa and how does one give sadqa?
Thank you for your inquiry. The term sadaqah (plural sadaqat) means “voluntary charity”. Anything given with the intention of reward (ajr or sawab) from Allah is sadaqah. It can be given to the needy, whether they are relatives, friends or other people in the community.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: September 8, 2009
Aslama o ALikum I am wondering, how much fitrana should I pay to the mosque, how much per person? I am also wondering how much a person should pay zakaat, if one has gold worth around 40 thousand kroner. That is about 150 grams of gold is about 17 tolles. I would like you to answer me as soon as possible. to my email. thank you Allah hafiz
Thank you for your inquiry. The minimum amount for fitrana or sadaqah al-fitr is this year (2009) approximately 30 kroner per person (based on the price of approximately 2 kilos of flour), and the maximum is 150 kroner (based on approximately 4 kilos of dates). One can choose to give fitrana according to one of these two.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: February 16, 2010
AA, If we want to pay zakat, what is most important first? We also have a debt where we pay interest that we cannot get rid of, something we want to finish as soon as possible because the debt is constantly growing. What should we do, pay zakat first or pay off the loan we have? Hope to get a quick answer...
Thank you for your inquiry. Giving the obligatory alms (zakah or zakat) is obligatory on every Muslim who possesses the nisab for a whole year. The nisab for zakah is, among other things, approximately 87.48 grams of gold, 612.36 grams of silver, or cash equivalent to the value of 612.36 silver if one has neither gold nor silver.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: March 1, 2010
Assalamo alaikom! I refer to a previous question (Is it permissible to donate haram items?) where it was answered that everything that is haram to own and use is haram to donate. Does this also apply to interest? Jazakallah khair
In the name of Allah, the Most Merciful, the Merciful. Thank you for your inquiry. There is a general rule that applies to all forbidden assets and illegal income. These cannot be donated. By donation here is meant giving something away as sadaqa. That is, giving something away with the intention of receiving reward for it from Allah.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: January 10, 2011
Hi Every year at the end of the year you get written interest from the bank on money you have in your savings account. I know that receiving/giving interest is illegal in Islam, except in special cases. I plan to give this interest to charity or donate it to a mosque anyway. Can you get ajr for that?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is not correct to give this money to a mosque. However, it can be used for other charitable purposes, but without the intention of sadqa/sawab.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: February 5, 2012
Hi, everyone in Norway is taxed, tax deducted from our salary. This money is given to something good in society. The Norwegian state collects the amount from every citizen in Norway, can we call this zakaht,? And why not when this money goes to roads, schools, medicines, aid abroad, etc. The money goes not only to Norwegians, but to more Muslims who use the roads, education, medicine, etc.
In the name of Allah, the Most Merciful, the Ever-Merciful. Thank you for your inquiry. There is a difference between the state tax and zakah (or zakat).
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: February 9, 2016
Is talaq valid if the woman is in her menstrual period?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is sinful to give talaq (divorce) while the woman is menstruating. However, the talaq will be valid. The waiting period of the woman will be extended. She must wait for another menstrual cycle before the idda begins.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: January 26, 2016
In case of second talaq, one can only do ruju. Or is a new nikah required? Is a new nikah required at all, after the 1st or 2nd?
Thank you for your inquiry. If the husband pronounces one or two verbal talaqs (divorces) (sarih) then it will be considered as talaq-raj’i. With such a divorce, the spouses can do ruju (return) without a new nikah (marriage contract). But ruju must take place before the expiry of the iddat period. After that, a new Nikah is required.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
Salam aleikum. I don't know where to send the question so I'm sending it here. I wonder if I can get a complement on the different divorces in Islam. I'm thinking especially about women's rights. I read a hadith where a woman came to the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) and said that even though there was nothing wrong with her husband, she wanted a divorce. The Prophet then asked if she was willing to give some gift in return. Then they divorced, but I don't remember in what way, whether the Prophet made her husband do it or whether he gave her a divorce. Which hadith is this? Is it true that the Prophet never prevented a woman who wanted a divorce from getting a divorce? Because if so, how can it be right for people nowadays to prevent women from doing so?
Thank you for your inquiry to us. When a woman does not want to live with her husband, for any valid reason, she can apply for divorce. This is called khul”a. Everything from dissatisfaction with the husband’s appearance to the husband subjecting his wife to abuse are valid reasons for a khul”a. Khul”a can be applied for through the court. It involves the woman agreeing to repay what she has received from her husband as dowry (mahr) in return for the dissolution of the marriage. The parties also have the opportunity to agree on an amount that is less or more than the value of the dowry.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
I have a problem and want to clarify my situation with a Muslim's wife. It started with me and my husband having a bad day and we started arguing after some heated discussions. The argument quickly led to both of us losing our temper. I said things that I shouldn't have said and my husband said the following words: "I am giving you talaq". After hearing that sentence, my world fell apart. When things calmed down a bit, he started saying that he was just trying to scare me and he never said the word "talaq". He said something else, and that I had heard wrong. I am now very confused whether talaq has been done or not. Are we married or divorced now? He has put his hand on the Quran and says that he did not say that he is giving me talaq. Please guide a confused sister!
If your husband said: “I give you talaq”, it became a talaq raj”i. This despite the fact that he now says that he said it just to scare you. I assume that he said it only once or twice, and not three times. Because if he said it three times then it is talaq mughallazah, i.e. divorce immediately without any possibility of ruju” (to repent). While talaq raj”i means that one has the possibility of ruju” and can be together as a married couple again without further ado.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
Due to various circumstances, I wish to divorce my Pakistani husband who has not lived with us and who has not supported the children. (The post has been significantly shortened and anonymized)
In Pakistan you have the option of applying for something called “khul”a”, i.e. divorce by the woman. This is done through the judiciary and can probably be arranged by consulting with some lawyer down there. The prerequisite for a woman to apply for khul”a is that she has a valid reason to have the marriage dissolved. The situation you have described in your email probably forms such a basis for khul”a.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
I have a question regarding divorce. In a situation where a husband and wife are at different jobs and they argue over the phone. Both hang up the phone. The husband does not say a word of divorce to his wife, because he does not really want to divorce her.
All praise belongs to Allah, the Almighty. Peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad, the last of the prophets, and may God be pleased with all the followers of Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) and his progeny. Thank you for submitting your question. In none of the cases described in the question is the marriage dissolved. It is worth noting that a divorce does not become effective by saying “talaq” to oneself – whether verbally or in writing.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
