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Published on: May 6, 2008
In September we will become happy parents. What we are wondering is if there is any prayer we can perform for the newborn.
Thank you for contacting us. There are several general prayers that can be used in connection with childbirth. Here are some examples: “Rabbi hab li milla dunka dhurriyyatan tayyibatan innaka sami ud-dua”. Translation: “My Lord, grant me a pure offspring! You are the Hearer of prayer.” (Quran, 3:38)
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: January 26, 2009
I had a question about zamzam. Some say that you should give zamzam to newborns. Is that true? I understand that it is okay to give zamzam until the child is a few weeks old. But should you give it the day the child is born, I am very unsure? From what I have read, it is important that a newborn only gets milk from the mother, especially at the beginning, if the child gets anything else it can in a way ruin breastfeeding. It can cause the child to lose the desire for breast milk. I am a little confused, you hear so many stories that you should do this and that. If you can answer whether it is something healthy or not, that would be great.
It’s just nice that you ask. It’s important to ask about things in Islam that you’re unsure about.
The Quran is in Arabic because it was revealed in Arabic, which was the language of the Prophet (peace be upon him), just as other holy books were revealed to prophets in their respective languages. Moreover, Arabic is a language that is quite rich with several variations of different words, unique inflections, concepts, etc.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: May 6, 2008
What is the best way for a Muslim, who is interested in his religion (but is busy with university studies, and lacks teachers, or teachers who have time), to learn about his religious duties? Is it obligatory for every religious person to read many Islamic texts? Is it wrong if one likes to examine evidence/sources [p. valid rulings] closer, as this entails increased conviction and higher ambitions?
The obligation to a morally responsible Muslim is to use his efforts to learn what is obligatory for him to know, and includes: ‘aqida (statements of faith), purification, prayer, fasting, buying and selling and everything that affects him because of his profession or work, such as being a doctor. If he does not learn this, he is sinful. The purpose of making this obligatory is to make one’s worship and work valid through [p. the knowledge of] its constituents and conditions. Acquiring knowledge beyond this is a sunnah. And let it also be said that the acquisition of knowledge about the obligatory is not limited to reading a text or a book. It is possible that one will get answers to one’s questions about the obligatory knowledge, such as questions about ‘aqida or about a ruling that affects one’s personal worship or work. The best way, however, to understand the rulings is to attend knowledge-based fiqh courses regularly, taught by a qualified person.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: May 31, 2011
Assalama-o-alaikom my question is if some parents forcefully put Quarn-e-Pak in their daughter's stomach and forcefully take half of it and marry her where her residence is, of course her parents know that she wants to marry someone else, then what is the law for this? And if the girl took half of it by pressing her hand in, what is the forgiveness for this, please forgive me.
Thank you for contacting us. There are several general prayers that can be used in connection with childbirth. Here are some examples: “Rabbi hab li milla dunka dhurriyyatan tayyibatan innaka sami ud-dua”. Translation: “My Lord, grant me a pure offspring! You are the Hearer of prayer.” (Quran 3:38)
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: August 16, 2012
The girl I'm going to marry uses her mother's name as her last name, how is this when you're going to do nikah and what is most correct, from what I've heard it's most common for children to have their father's last name, are there any exceptions here? And what's most common when a girl gets married and is going to change her last name, I've googled this a bit and it says that the girl shouldn't remove her father's last name and that this is a sin but how should I approach this when the girl doesn't use her father's last name at all? Hoping for an answer.
There is no requirement for girls, or boys, to have a surname after their father. A person’s full name can even be without a surname. In general, one can have an arbitrary name as long as it does not have a meaning that conflicts with the fundamentals of the Islamic faith.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: March 19, 2013
Can you explain a little bit about what Sharia is? In short, what is Sharia, where in the world is Sharia practiced, and is the Sharia that is practiced as it is described from a religious standpoint (does it have any basis in the Quran)?
Sharia is the divine law. It is a set of rules that God commands humans to live by. It makes clear to us what we should do and what we should not do, and its rules are intended to protect humans from evil and to make all aspects of their lives useful and enjoyable. Sharia is an all-encompassing expression of Allah’s will for both the spiritual and social lives of humans through commandments, prohibitions, or permissions.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: September 5, 2011
How do you make dua after praying namaz? For example, can you make dua in sajadah because then you are closest to ALLAH? How did the Prophet make dua?
In the name of Allah, the Most Merciful, the Ever-Merciful. Thank you for your inquiry. Imam Ahmad Raza Khan Qadri (may Allah bless him) writes in his masterpiece that making dua after the prayer is sunnah. The usual way of supplication is to raise the hands after completing the prayer (dua) and “wipe” them over the face. This is proven from the Sunnah of the Prophet, peace be upon him. (Fatawa Rizwiyya: 6/202, Raza Foundation Lahore) A hadith in Tirmidhi states the following: “According to Umar ibn al-Khattab (may Allah be pleased with him); when the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) raised his hands during prayer (dua), he would not lower them without wiping his face” (Sharah Sahih Muslim: 7/433). This is the most common way of making dua after prayer according to most traditions. However, it is also perfectly acceptable to make dua in sajdah. It is stated in a hadith narrated by Abu Huraira (may Allah be pleased with him) that the servant is closest to his Lord in the sajdah position. Therefore, make dua in this position as much as possible (Sahih Muslim and Sunan Abi Dawud, according to Sharah Sahih Muslim: 7/438). And Allah knows best. Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: September 11, 2012
Salaam. Namaz chasht kia hay aur iskay parne ka kia tarika hay, plz har rakat ko tafsilan say batain.
السلام علیکم ورحمۃاللہ آپ کا سوال موصول ہوا۔ جواب حاضر ہے۔ وباللہ التوفیق۔ نمازِ چاشت سنت ہے اور اس کا وقت سورج کے ایک نیزہ بلند ہونے سے (یعنی طلوعِ آفتاب سے تقریباً ۲۰ منٹ بعد) زوال سے پہلے تک ہے اور بہتر یہ ہے کہ ایک چوتھائی دن گزرنے پر پڑھنا شروع کیا جائے۔ (کتاب الفقہ، جلد اول صفحہ ۵۲۶)۔ اس نماز کی بڑی فضیلت ہے۔ حدیث شریف میں ہے: جو شخص چاشت کی دو رکعت کی حفاظت کرے اس کے گناہ (صغیرہ) بخش دئیے جائیں گےاگرچہ سمندر کے جھاگ کے برابر ہوں۔ (فتاوٰی فقیہِ ملت، جلد اول صفحہ ۲۰۳)۔ نمازِ چاشت کی کم سے کم دو اور زیادہ سے زیادہ بارہ رکعتیں ہیں (بہارِ شریعت) کتاب الفقہ میں زیادہ سے زیادہ سولہ رکعتوں کا ذکر ہے لیکن بارہ ہی افضل ہیں (قانونِ شریعت ، حصہ اول صفحہ ۱۶۱، ممتاز اکیڈمی لاہور)۔ اس کے پڑھنے کا طریقہ ویسا ہی ہے جیسے دوسرے تمام نوافل پڑھے جاتے ہیں۔ واللہ تعالیٰ اعلم بالصواب نجیب الرحمٰن ناز
Answered by: نجیب الرحمٰن ناز
Published on: September 3, 2016
How long should "wa lad daaleen" be recited in surah al Fatiha?
Assalamu alaikum, Thank you for your inquiry. Waladdallin is six harakat. It is equivalent to about 3 seconds. And Allah knows best. Wassalam Ibrahim A. Brother Ibrahim A. has formal authorization in tajweed (recitation of the Quran) dating back to the Prophet Muhammad, peace be upon him.
Answered by: Ibrahim A.
Published on: May 24, 2007
I have always been told that it is better for women to pray at home. I never thought about the reasons, until now. I have read on their website that the reason was because it was more hidden, and it would prevent women from adorning themselves when they go to the mosque. While these are good reasons, I wonder if there are more. I have also heard that women receive more blessings by praying at home? If you could tell me more reasons for that, I would like to know...
In the Name of Allah, the Gracious, the Merciful. Dear sister, I pray that this message reaches you in good health and iman. Thank you for your question.
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood.
Published on: September 22, 2007
Zaid has a large number of prayers, which he makes up for five times a day. Is there any way for him to be released from this responsibility as soon as possible and avoid punishment from Allah?
Zaid has a large number of prayers, which he wants to make up as soon as possible. The easiest option according to Alahazrat Imam Ahmad Raza is: It is permissible for him in ruku and in each sujud that instead of reciting subhana rabbi yal azeem and subhana rabbi yal a’la three times, he can recite this only once. One should always remember that the recitation does not start until one has bowed completely and is in the ruku position. One should remain in this position until the last word, i.e. azeem, is said.
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: January 6, 2008
How does one perform the prayer of hardship ?
Both the Quran and the Hadith contain numerous duas, which encourage us to ask Allah for everything we need. Allah (‘Azza wa jall) hears all our prayers and answers them, as He says in the Quran: “And when My servants ask Me, behold, I am near. I answer the prayer of the supplicant when he calls upon Me. So let them listen to Me and believe in Me, that they may be guided.” (2:186)
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: May 30, 2007
Many brothers send questions via e-mail regarding shaking hands with women in professional settings, saying that not doing so will harm or hinder their ability to function. Perhaps they will not be hired, promoted, or accepted into professional fields (such as the legal profession) where Muslim presence is required. I checked what some prominent traditional fuqaha [Islamic jurists], including those from Pakistan and some of my teachers in Damascus, had to say, and they are very firm in their views. However, the brothers who have asked say that such answers are based on little understanding of “Western realities.” They say that it is not possible to function in a Western professional work environment without shaking hands with women. What would you answer and advise regarding this issue, Sayyidi?
Assalamu alaykum In the name of Him who inspires truth! No, it is not permissible to shake hands with the opposite sex at all. There are many narrations from the Prophet (peace be upon him) where he never shook hands with any woman, despite his status as a prophet. All the allegiance [bay’ah] he took was either without holding hands or with a piece of cloth tied around it. He explicitly informed the women when they extended their hands to him that he did not shake hands with women. [See Muhammad Ibn Sa’d, The Women in Madina, Chapter 1: The manner in which the Messenger of Allah received women’s allegiance] Consequently, we cannot find anything to go on to change this rule. Many non-Islamic professions are prevalent in the business and commercial world. We are constantly asked whether it is permissible to sit at the same table as a client where alcohol is served; whether it is permissible to hold private meetings with women behind closed doors without a third person present, performing zuhr instead of jumu’ah if one is busy with meetings when it is time for khutbah; taking off the hijab to seek employment; shaving the beard for such reasons and so on; not to mention interest-based loans. This list is endless. So, how can a person want to be assimilated, and sell the afterlife for something that is short-lived, the life on earth. Yes, certain fatwas (legal rulings) are to be found on these matters from so-called scholars. Much of the religion has already been put at stake. We know of a mosque in a city in California where “Islamic Dating” is being promoted. Their practice is supported by seemingly convincing logical arguments that sound very attractive, but how far can one take the matter, and how much of the religion will remain if this course continues to be followed? No one has said that following religion in the 21st century is easy; whether one is in a Muslim country or in the West. Did not the Prophet (peace be upon him) say that there will come a time when a person who follows his religion will be like one holding on to a burning coal, and did he not say that this world is a prison for a believer and a paradise for a non-believer? One must remember that through perseverance and abstinence from sin [sabr ani’l-ma’siyah] there are great rewards to be earned, despite the apparent financial or similar losses one may incur in this world. The average American and Westerner [since shaking hands with a woman is a bigger issue in America and the West] is usually very understanding and attuned to other people’s religious requirements. If informed in a polite manner, they will normally act with understanding and are prepared to be more accommodating. If scholars start offering caution and tolerance for certain matters that are strictly clarified in the Shari’ah by excusing themselves that we live in modern times, how will the original rulings in these matters be renewed? Sunnah and correct customs will be lost forever and innovations will take over. Those who try to adhere to the correct rulings of the Shari’ah in these matters will feel isolated and weak. Therefore, it must be emphasized that the traditional jurists who are unable to give discretion in such matters do not do so out of narrow-mindedness or ignorance. It is only to keep the religion intact and complete. Yes, if someone in certain situations is forced to act contrary to the Sunnah, it is a personal problem where tawba [repentance] should be made. Allah will guide whoever fears Him, and He knows best. Translated by Khudija Mahmood, source: sunnipath.com
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: June 2, 2007
I have a question about wireless internet. Would it be wrong for me to use another network without telling them? With today's wireless capabilities on laptops, you can easily connect to another wireless network (if they haven't locked it) without actually doing any significant harm to the owner. But would it still be wrong?
Waleikum assalam wa rahmtaullah, I hope that you are well and in the best of health and good spirits. May Allah grant you goodness and success in this life and the next. The legal basis for this in Shariah is that one cannot make use of another’s property without their permission. This permission can be given explicitly or implicitly. In most countries, no such implicit permission is given for strangers to use people’s private wireless networks. In fact, this is quite often against the law, and is generally perceived as unethical as studies have shown. When there is no explicit permission to use another’s property, a Muslim is religiously obligated to exercise caution, because it is another’s property and it is not permissible to use their property without explicit or clear implicit permission. [al-Bahr al-Ra’iq, 8:209 from Abu al-Layth al-Samarqandi’s ‘Uyun al-Masai’l; al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya, 2:290 from al-Muhit; Ibn Abidin, Radd al-Muhtar, 4:285 (‘Illmiyya ed.) from Sharh al-Wahbaniyya and al-Khaniyya] The basis of this issue is the words of the Prophet of Allah (peace be upon him): “The property of a Muslim is not permissible to take without their permission” [narrated by Ahmad, and others] And Allah alone grants success. Translated by Omar T, source: sunnipath.com
Answered by: Omar T
Published on: July 11, 2007
If you were teaching a class of both female and male youth who are from Muslim backgrounds, would it have been acceptable to teach them even if one or two of them were adults and did not wear the hijab?
Walaikum assalam I hope you are in good health and in good spirits. This follows the ruling of enjoining good and forbidding evil. The essential reason for enjoining good and forbidding evil is to increase good and reduce evil. This should be done after clear thinking and careful consideration of the situation and of the possible outcomes. Until one is certain that one’s words or actions are beneficial (at least confirming the truth, even if it is not heard) and without harm, one should not act. The scholars draw this from the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him): “Whoever believes in Allah and the Last Day, let him say what is good or remain silent.” [Bukhari and Muslim] Imam Nawawi (may Allah be pleased with him) said; Every legally responsible person should refrain from speaking except when there is a clear benefit from speaking. When speaking and not speaking are equally beneficial, it is Sunnah to remain silent, because permissible speech easily leads to what is unlawful and provocative, which in fact happens most of the time, and it is no substitute for safety. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever believes in Allaah and the Last Day, let him speak what is good or remain silent.” This Hadeeth, whose authenticity is agreed upon by Bukhari and Muslim, is an explicit legal text indicating that a person should not speak if what he is going to say is not good, i.e. its benefit is clear and evident to him. When there is doubt as to the benefit of speaking, one should not say anything at all. Imam Shafi (may Allah be pleased with him) said: “One should first think about the matter, and if one is benefited by speaking, one should speak, but if one doubts, one should remain silent until the benefit becomes clear. [Nawawi, al-Adhkar as translated by Shaykh Nuh Keller, Reliance of the Traveller, r.1.1] The Most Important of the Rules Enjoining Good and Forbidding Evil Enjoining good and forbidding evil is one of the most important Islamic duties. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) warned us, “Enjoin good and forbid evil or Allah will make the worst of you rule over the best of you, and the best of you will displace Allah and be left in uncertainty.” Scholars believe that enjoining good and forbidding evil is obligatory if one believes that the person will listen. However, if one believes that the person will not listen, it is recommended. However, if greater harm or a worsening of the situation is feared, it is better (even obligatory in some cases) not to speak. something, because one lawfully chooses the lesser of two evils. It would be obligatory, however, to hate evil in one’s heart. With this, if it is going on in one’s presence (something like listening to unlawful speech) it would be obligatory to leave if stopping (for example, discreetly changing the subject) the conversation is not possible. Likewise, if a sister is not covered properly, one cannot allow oneself to look at her hair or limbs. Likewise, if a brother is wearing very tight trousers, one cannot look at the (very tight) area between the navel and the knees. Sayyidi Abd al-Ghani al-Nabulsi (may Allah be pleased with him) warns that the general prophetic in enjoining good and forbidding evil is to do so in a discreet, non-specific manner, in order to spare the honor and feelings of the wrongdoer as much as possible. [from Sharh al-Tariqa al-Muhammadiyya, Sayyidi Abd al-Ghani al-Nabulsi; Radd al-Muhtar, Allama Ibn Abidin; al-Hadhr wa’l Ibaha, Shaykh Khalil al-Nahlawi] Waleikum assalam Translated by Azim Qureshi, source: sunnipath.com
Answered by: Azim Qureshi.
Published on: August 20, 2007
Assalamu alaikum. I would like to know if it is permissible to go to the cinema? Lisa
In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful! Going to the cinema cannot be without things that are disliked or simply forbidden in Islam, including: – looking at naked or semi-naked pictures of women and/or men – erotic and/or sexual scenes – music, which according to most scholars is haram to listen to These are things that are a common denominator for all cinemas. Therefore, it is impossible to find a cinema that does not show films that contain this type of morally destructive things. From this it is clear and obvious that going to the cinema is hardly forbidden in itself. One can go to the cinema to watch a film that has a good message and sensible teachings. The prerequisite is that it is free from all that is unlawful. Since this is almost completely impossible, it is usually concluded that it is not permissible to go to the cinema. For it is a general rule in Islam that in addition to something being forbidden, everything that can lead to the forbidden is also forbidden or discouraged. So that one has the least possible risk of ending up in the forbidden. It is not that one has no leisure activities in Islam, or that one should not have fun. Islam is for sensible games and leisure activities that serve one’s physical health and/or common sense, and is against everything to the contrary. And Allah knows best. Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: May 12, 2007
What does Islam say about interest and loans?
“O you who believe, fear God and forgive usury, if you are believers. If you do not, then war has been declared upon you from God and His Messenger. But if you turn back, then you may keep your original capital. Do not wrong, and you shall not be wronged. If anyone is in difficulty, then give respite until things improve. But to forgive as a gift is best for you, if you but knew.” [2:278-80]
Answered by: Azhar M
Published on: May 30, 2007
Many brothers send questions via e-mail regarding shaking hands with women in professional settings, saying that not doing so will harm or hinder their ability to function. Perhaps they will not be hired, promoted, or accepted into professional fields (such as the legal profession) where Muslim presence is required. I checked what some prominent traditional fuqaha [Islamic jurists], including those from Pakistan and some of my teachers in Damascus, had to say, and they are very firm in their views. However, the brothers who have asked say that such answers are based on little understanding of “Western realities.” They say that it is not possible to function in a Western professional work environment without shaking hands with women. What would you answer and advise regarding this issue, Sayyidi?
No, it is not permissible to shake hands with the opposite sex at all. There are many narrations from the Prophet (peace be upon him) where he never shook hands with any woman, despite his status as a prophet. All the allegiance [bay’ah] he took was either without holding hands or with a piece of cloth tied around it. He explicitly informed the women when they extended their hands to him that he did not shake hands with women. [See Muhammad Ibn Sa’d, The Women in Madina, Chapter 1: The manner in which the Messenger of Allah received women’s allegiance]
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: October 6, 2008
A while ago I asked a question about removing/plucking hair and eyebrows. Can a wife do that kind of Zinat for her husband?? I still need an answer from you on this. I heard on QTV from a mufti sahib that it is permissible to pluck eyebrows if they are large and ugly to look at. Another Professor believes that plucking eyebrows is strictly prohibited, but it says nothing about plucking/removing hair from other parts of the body. What is correct and what is not correct? Can anyone guide me in this matter?
Thank you for your inquiry. On a general basis, it is not desired to pluck hair from different body parts. However, some scholars are of the opinion that it is mubah (permissible) to do so for certain purposes.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: October 6, 2008
Salam I wonder if it is permissible to use sanitary napkins when you are menstruating and a razor to clean yourself after this period?
Thank you for your inquiry. There is nothing wrong with using sanitary pads during menstruation and a razor to remove hair in the genital area.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: March 31, 2009
salaam I wonder if Islam allows women to cut their hair.., then I'm thinking of cutting tripp trapp or step. I've heard that it's allowed to cut a little on the ends, but not more than that. I hope for a quick answer. w salam
Thank you for your inquiry. The classical sources confirm what you have heard. Scholars from the subcontinent such as Imam Ahmad Raza Khan refer to these in his masterpiece and conclude that it is haram for women to cut their hair (Fatawa Rizviyya, vol. 24, p. 543).
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: April 21, 2010
Salam Is it permissible to wear colored lenses? That is, lenses that you use to see?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is permissible for a woman to wear colored lenses. They can be considered jewelry, which women use to adorn themselves.
Answered by: Imam Najeeb Naz
Published on: April 29, 2010
Is hijab an obligation in Islam?
The American-Muslim Sufi-oriented theologian Nuh Ha Mim Keller writes the following about the hijab theology based on the Quran:
Answered by: Arisha Moghal
Published on: August 19, 2010
hi my question is: What is it that is allowed to read during menstruation?, I know you can't touch the Quran since you are not clean, but is it allowed to read things orally? I have another question: Someone who has fasted and gets their period when half the day has passed, does the fast count or not? I have heard that since you have made the niyat and half the day has passed, you should not break the fast.? Thank you very much in advance.
Thank you for your inquiry. 1) During menstruation, it is permissible to do various dhikrs such as reciting kalima tayyiba, the names of Allah, darud sharif, etc. It is only the Quran that cannot be touched or read. However, it is permissible to recite the various verses containing dua by heart.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: October 17, 2007
Can you have sex with your wife after her period has ended, but before she has taken a shower? What if her period ends a few days earlier than normal. What then? Thank you.
All praise belongs to Allah, the Almighty. Peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad, the last of the prophets, and may God be pleased with all the followers of Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) and his progeny. Thank you for submitting your question. Regarding intercourse after menstruation, it is important to consider the following: If menstruation ends after ten days, which is the maximum menstrual period, then there is no problem in having intercourse with one’s wife before she has performed ghusl (shower/bath).
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: October 6, 2008
salam o'alaikom Sometimes when I finish praying when I check below I find some mist like deposit on the tip of my private part, do I have to do wudu again and do the salat again or should I just do wudu for the new salat. Jazakom Allahwakhair
Thank you for your inquiry. Since this happens irregularly as you describe in your inquiry, there are two scenarios: 1. That it happens before or during salah 2. Or after salah
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: October 29, 2008
salam o3alaikom I have a question about ghusl, I know that you should start with wudu first, then ghusl comes. but when I do ghusl and I have gas in my stomach and I let it out, do I have to do wudu and ghusl again or should I finish ghusl and just do wudu again. Then I have another question. every time I wake up I find something in my underwear but I'm not sure if it's Mani, Madhi or Wadi so it always ends up with me doing ghusl, and sometimes I find it quite tiring. I apologize for the way I've written it, but I hope dear brothers that you can answer me on this. wasalam o3alaikom
Thank you for submitting your question. Wudu before ghusl is not necessary, but rather a sunnah. One does not need to repeat wudu after ghusl, regardless of whether one has performed wudu before ghusl or not, unless one has done something that invalidates wudu. In other words, ghusl is valid even if one has not performed wudu before it, or if one releases air from one’s stomach during ghusl.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 10, 2008
Hi, I have a question regarding sexual intercourse within Islam. I am wondering if as a girl I have to make myself clean (pak/tahir) in the same way after sexual intercourse as after menstruation? or is there a difference, or is there something else I also have to do in addition? Another thing I was wondering was, do I need to become clean (pak/tahir) after intimate activity in the genitals, but without sexual intercourse taking place? [The italics are an adapted rewording of the original text]
Thank you for your inquiry. Ghusl is obligatory if one or more of the following conditions are present: Ejaculation that occurs only due to shahwah (sexual desire), and not for any other reason. This applies both in the form of a “wet dream” or in a waking state. There is no distinction between men and women here.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: December 11, 2008
What is the quickest way to perform ghusl while fulfilling all the requirements related to purification? I am talking about ghusl which is required for intercourse, menstruation, etc. Thank you
Ghusl (ritual shower) becomes obligatory on three occasions: After sexual intercourse, whether it leads to ejaculation/orgasm or not. After ejaculation/orgasm that occurs due to sexual desire. At the end of menstruation and postpartum period.
Answered by: Mohammad Juned
Published on: December 16, 2008
Why do we have to trim our pubic and armpit hair? Do we have to continue to do so?
Al-Salam `alaykum, The hair in the lower abdomen and below the elbows should be removed. It is disliked to let it grow until it becomes long. It is recommended to do this on a weekly basis, ideally on Fridays (before the Friday prayer). Extending this to at least once every 15 days is not disliked, but beyond this is blameworthy, and later than 40 days is sinful. (Tahtawi, Hashiyat al-Tahtawi ‘ala al-Maraqi al-Falah)
Answered by: M. Azhar
Published on: September 1, 2011
Hi, I was wondering if the fast is broken if you bite your lip and get a little blood in your mouth?
Thank you for your inquiry. The fast is not broken by getting blood in the mouth and then spitting it out again. However, if you manage to swallow the blood, the fast is invalidated.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: September 2, 2011
Salam. Can one fast without praying Taraweeh the night before, or is the fast then invalid?
Thank you for your inquiry. The fast will be valid regardless of whether one has prayed the tarawih prayer or not. However, not praying tarawih is blameworthy.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: September 9, 2011
Is it correct that one must first make up for the days of fasting from Ramadan and then fast six days in Shawwal? I have heard that one must first make up for the days one has missed in Ramadan, because it is obligatory (fard) and then fast six days in Shawwal, because it is sunnah/voluntary?
Thank you for your inquiry. 1. Islamic jurists (fuqaha) say that when one fasts six days in Shawwal, one gets a reward for performing the sunnah (of fasting six days in Shawwal) regardless. This also applies if one makes up for his fasts from Ramadan.
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: July 26, 2012
Salam aleikum! What about using miswak while fasting? Can one have water in their mouth while using miswak, or does that break the fast? JazakhAllah khair for the answer.
Thank you for your inquiry. It is sunnah (an act performed and loved by the beloved Prophet, peace be upon him) to use miswak/siwak to brush teeth, and it is permissible to use it during fasting as well.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: July 26, 2012
Assalamu Aleykum! I was wondering about something, I'll try my best to explain myself.. I forgot to say what we say before we fast (the prayer) yesterday but I'm fasting anyway since I plan to fast the whole month.. Does it matter if I forgot to say that prayer or whatever it's called:/ 'before my fast?
Thank you for your inquiry. “It is important that one has a clear intention, niyyah, before starting prayer, fasting, etc. The intention is a purposeful, unambiguous determination you have in your heart about the action you are about to perform. For example, when you get up to eat the dawn meal (sehri) you are aware that you want to fast.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: August 4, 2012
Salam! I wonder if it is permissible to wear deodorant and perfume while fasting? Surely it is something that gets absorbed into the skin?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is not problematic to use deodorant/perfume during fasting.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: February 25, 2010
Tawaf-e-Wida and Wudu
Wudu is necessary (wajib) to perform tawaf. Tawaf-e-wida is also wajib in hajj. If you have performed tawaf-e-wida without wudu (as your email suggests), it means that you have missed a wajib in hajj. When this happens, it must be replaced with a dam (sacrifice a goat, a sheep, etc.).
Answered by: najeeb Naz
Published on: May 24, 2007
I am impatient and waiting to perform Umrah.
I am a 19 year old girl, and compared to many others still very young. For two years now I have been waiting to go to Saudi Arabia and wanted to perform Umrah. But I have not been able to do so. I was born Muslim and follow Islam from the heart. However, I am currently a practicing Muslim and have been performing the prayer (namaz/salah) every day for two years now. I started wearing the hijab a year ago.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: August 9, 2010
Salam. I am wondering if it is permissible in Islam to have intercourse with one's wife while on hajj? and possibly when it is permissible?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is not permissible to have sexual intercourse during Hajj from the time one assumes ihram until one has performed tawaf ziyarat (also called tawaf ifadah). One assumes ihram for Hajj usually on the 8th.
Answered by: najeeb Naz
Published on: August 23, 2012
Hi, I'm wondering who can pay for an umrah/hajj trip? Can I, as a daughter, give an umrah trip as a gift to my parents even if they can afford to pay for it themselves and they have an adult son who could also do it. Thank you very much for the work you do.?
You are doing yourself a great favor by paying for your parents’ Umrah. This will, insha’Allah, ensure you a lot of reward and blessings. This is regardless of whether they themselves can afford to do this – or whether there are other people who can also pay for them.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: August 29, 2012
1. What about a pilgrim who is unable to stay overnight in Mina due to no tents. Is there any restriction that everyone must stay there until Salat-e-Fajar before heading to Arafat and if a person does not do this then Hajj will not be complete? 2. What about transportation from Mina to Arafat. If the bus time to Arafat is after Maghrib Salaat, or late in the evening and on the night of 8 Dhul Hajj (before Salaat Fajar)?
1) Staying overnight in Mina is Sunnah. If for some reason one is unable to stay overnight there, it will not have any consequence on the validity of the Hajj. However, it is an act that is against the Sunnah. 2) It is obligatory to stay on the plain of Arafat (wuquf Arafat) for a while between the time when the sun begins to leave the zenith (its highest point in the sky) on the 9th of Dhul-Hajj and before the time of Fajr on the 10th of Dhul-Hajj occurs.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: October 30, 2012
What is Takbir al-Tashreeq and when is it recited?
Takbir al-Tashriq is a practice that has been handed down from the previous generations of Muslims with reference to Sayyiduna ‘Ali and Ibn Mas’ud (may Allah be pleased with them) in the collection of Ibn Abi Shayba [Ibn al-Humam, Fath al-Qadir]. This is therefore a practice that has its roots from the companions of the Prophet (peace be upon him) and is therefore considered authentic and meritorious.
Answered by: najeeb Naz
Published on: June 24, 2007
Is the Prophet, peace be upon him, a healer of diseases? I came across a way of sending blessings (salaam) to the Prophet, peace be upon him, which describes him as a “healer of diseases and medicine for hearts.” Is it permissible to portray the Prophet, peace be upon him, as a “healer of diseases”? And is this way of sending blessings different from that in Salat al-Tibbiyya?
Know that the school of Ahl al-Sunnah takes the position that it is obligatory to attribute all actions to Allah the Exalted. The Quran is clear about this when it says: “Allah is the Creator of all things” (39:62). “And Allah created you and what you do” (37:96). “Say everything is from Allah” (4:78).
Answered by: Khurram Khan
Published on: September 28, 2007
I need guidance and advice regarding protection against human black magic and evil jinn. I have been having problems for a while now. Where can I get guidance and advice?
Black magic (sihr) is something that definitely exists and causes harm to people. The Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) was also affected by black magic. A Jew named Labid ibn Asim who outwardly pretended to be a believer (munafiq, hypocrite) performed black magic on the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him).
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: June 20, 2008
What are jinn, and what do they mean in daily life?
Allah mentions the jinn in the following way in the Quran: “We created the jinn before from blazing fire.” (15:27) The jinn are also part of Allah’s creation, and will, just like humans, have to answer for their actions on the Day of Judgment.
Answered by: M Azhar
Published on: October 6, 2008
Salamoalaikom I was wondering that when we read la ilaha illallaho Muhammad darsololla and when we read Muhammad darasolollah then why do we kiss our eyes. Salamoalaikom
Thank you for your inquiry. Kissing the thumbs and rubbing them over the eyes after hearing “ash’hadu anna Muhammadar-rasul Allah” in the adhan is an action characterized as mustahabb by many scholars.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rahman Naz
Published on: November 28, 2008
What does Islam have to do with "Healing"?
Thank you for your inquiry. The term healing encompasses many different methods, but I assume you mean different forms of alternative medicine or that which falls outside of regular medical practice.
Answered by: Noman Ahmed
Published on: December 9, 2008
According to some, the Prophet (peace be upon him) is present everywhere, as well as omnipresent like Allah, while other schools say that this is not the case. Can you clarify for me the TRUE ISLAMIC position on this matter based on traditional Islam? I have recently read some articles that explain that, yes, the Prophet (peace be upon him) is hazir and nazir because he receives darood from the angels and possesses the power to receive salaam from everyone in the entire world, which makes him hazir and nazir, meaning everywhere and at all times...
This debate is foreign to me. Authentic hadiths confirm that Allah makes the Prophet (peace be upon him) acquainted with the deeds of his people. Thus, it is “as if” he is present, through his knowledge of the actions of his people.
Answered by: M. Azhar
Published on: April 26, 2009
Salaam aleekum. I have a small question. What is sadqa and how does one give sadqa?
Thank you for your inquiry. The term sadaqah (plural sadaqat) means “voluntary charity”. Anything given with the intention of reward (ajr or sawab) from Allah is sadaqah. It can be given to the needy, whether they are relatives, friends or other people in the community.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: September 8, 2009
Aslama o ALikum I am wondering, how much fitrana should I pay to the mosque, how much per person? I am also wondering how much a person should pay zakaat, if one has gold worth around 40 thousand kroner. That is about 150 grams of gold is about 17 tolles. I would like you to answer me as soon as possible. to my email. thank you Allah hafiz
Thank you for your inquiry. The minimum amount for fitrana or sadaqah al-fitr is this year (2009) approximately 30 kroner per person (based on the price of approximately 2 kilos of flour), and the maximum is 150 kroner (based on approximately 4 kilos of dates). One can choose to give fitrana according to one of these two.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: February 16, 2010
AA, If we want to pay zakat, what is most important first? We also have a debt where we pay interest that we cannot get rid of, something we want to finish as soon as possible because the debt is constantly growing. What should we do, pay zakat first or pay off the loan we have? Hope to get a quick answer...
Thank you for your inquiry. Giving the obligatory alms (zakah or zakat) is obligatory on every Muslim who possesses the nisab for a whole year. The nisab for zakah is, among other things, approximately 87.48 grams of gold, 612.36 grams of silver, or cash equivalent to the value of 612.36 silver if one has neither gold nor silver.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: March 1, 2010
Assalamo alaikom! I refer to a previous question (Is it permissible to donate haram items?) where it was answered that everything that is haram to own and use is haram to donate. Does this also apply to interest? Jazakallah khair
In the name of Allah, the Most Merciful, the Merciful. Thank you for your inquiry. There is a general rule that applies to all forbidden assets and illegal income. These cannot be donated. By donation here is meant giving something away as sadaqa. That is, giving something away with the intention of receiving reward for it from Allah.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: January 10, 2011
Hi Every year at the end of the year you get written interest from the bank on money you have in your savings account. I know that receiving/giving interest is illegal in Islam, except in special cases. I plan to give this interest to charity or donate it to a mosque anyway. Can you get ajr for that?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is not correct to give this money to a mosque. However, it can be used for other charitable purposes, but without the intention of sadqa/sawab.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: February 5, 2012
Hi, everyone in Norway is taxed, tax deducted from our salary. This money is given to something good in society. The Norwegian state collects the amount from every citizen in Norway, can we call this zakaht,? And why not when this money goes to roads, schools, medicines, aid abroad, etc. The money goes not only to Norwegians, but to more Muslims who use the roads, education, medicine, etc.
In the name of Allah, the Most Merciful, the Ever-Merciful. Thank you for your inquiry. There is a difference between the state tax and zakah (or zakat).
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: February 9, 2016
Is talaq valid if the woman is in her menstrual period?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is sinful to give talaq (divorce) while the woman is menstruating. However, the talaq will be valid. The waiting period of the woman will be extended. She must wait for another menstrual cycle before the idda begins.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: January 26, 2016
In case of second talaq, one can only do ruju. Or is a new nikah required? Is a new nikah required at all, after the 1st or 2nd?
Thank you for your inquiry. If the husband pronounces one or two verbal talaqs (divorces) (sarih) then it will be considered as talaq-raj’i. With such a divorce, the spouses can do ruju (return) without a new nikah (marriage contract). But ruju must take place before the expiry of the iddat period. After that, a new Nikah is required.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
Salam aleikum. I don't know where to send the question so I'm sending it here. I wonder if I can get a complement on the different divorces in Islam. I'm thinking especially about women's rights. I read a hadith where a woman came to the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) and said that even though there was nothing wrong with her husband, she wanted a divorce. The Prophet then asked if she was willing to give some gift in return. Then they divorced, but I don't remember in what way, whether the Prophet made her husband do it or whether he gave her a divorce. Which hadith is this? Is it true that the Prophet never prevented a woman who wanted a divorce from getting a divorce? Because if so, how can it be right for people nowadays to prevent women from doing so?
Thank you for your inquiry to us. When a woman does not want to live with her husband, for any valid reason, she can apply for divorce. This is called khul”a. Everything from dissatisfaction with the husband’s appearance to the husband subjecting his wife to abuse are valid reasons for a khul”a. Khul”a can be applied for through the court. It involves the woman agreeing to repay what she has received from her husband as dowry (mahr) in return for the dissolution of the marriage. The parties also have the opportunity to agree on an amount that is less or more than the value of the dowry.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
I have a problem and want to clarify my situation with a Muslim's wife. It started with me and my husband having a bad day and we started arguing after some heated discussions. The argument quickly led to both of us losing our temper. I said things that I shouldn't have said and my husband said the following words: "I am giving you talaq". After hearing that sentence, my world fell apart. When things calmed down a bit, he started saying that he was just trying to scare me and he never said the word "talaq". He said something else, and that I had heard wrong. I am now very confused whether talaq has been done or not. Are we married or divorced now? He has put his hand on the Quran and says that he did not say that he is giving me talaq. Please guide a confused sister!
If your husband said: “I give you talaq”, it became a talaq raj”i. This despite the fact that he now says that he said it just to scare you. I assume that he said it only once or twice, and not three times. Because if he said it three times then it is talaq mughallazah, i.e. divorce immediately without any possibility of ruju” (to repent). While talaq raj”i means that one has the possibility of ruju” and can be together as a married couple again without further ado.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
Due to various circumstances, I wish to divorce my Pakistani husband who has not lived with us and who has not supported the children. (The post has been significantly shortened and anonymized)
In Pakistan you have the option of applying for something called “khul”a”, i.e. divorce by the woman. This is done through the judiciary and can probably be arranged by consulting with some lawyer down there. The prerequisite for a woman to apply for khul”a is that she has a valid reason to have the marriage dissolved. The situation you have described in your email probably forms such a basis for khul”a.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
I have a question regarding divorce. In a situation where a husband and wife are at different jobs and they argue over the phone. Both hang up the phone. The husband does not say a word of divorce to his wife, because he does not really want to divorce her.
All praise belongs to Allah, the Almighty. Peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad, the last of the prophets, and may God be pleased with all the followers of Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) and his progeny. Thank you for submitting your question. In none of the cases described in the question is the marriage dissolved. It is worth noting that a divorce does not become effective by saying “talaq” to oneself – whether verbally or in writing.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
