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Published on: May 6, 2008
In September we will become happy parents. What we are wondering is if there is any prayer we can perform for the newborn.
Thank you for contacting us. There are several general prayers that can be used in connection with childbirth. Here are some examples: “Rabbi hab li milla dunka dhurriyyatan tayyibatan innaka sami ud-dua”. Translation: “My Lord, grant me a pure offspring! You are the Hearer of prayer.” (Quran, 3:38)
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: January 26, 2009
I had a question about zamzam. Some say that you should give zamzam to newborns. Is that true? I understand that it is okay to give zamzam until the child is a few weeks old. But should you give it the day the child is born, I am very unsure? From what I have read, it is important that a newborn only gets milk from the mother, especially at the beginning, if the child gets anything else it can in a way ruin breastfeeding. It can cause the child to lose the desire for breast milk. I am a little confused, you hear so many stories that you should do this and that. If you can answer whether it is something healthy or not, that would be great.
It’s just nice that you ask. It’s important to ask about things in Islam that you’re unsure about.
The Quran is in Arabic because it was revealed in Arabic, which was the language of the Prophet (peace be upon him), just as other holy books were revealed to prophets in their respective languages. Moreover, Arabic is a language that is quite rich with several variations of different words, unique inflections, concepts, etc.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: May 6, 2008
What is the best way for a Muslim, who is interested in his religion (but is busy with university studies, and lacks teachers, or teachers who have time), to learn about his religious duties? Is it obligatory for every religious person to read many Islamic texts? Is it wrong if one likes to examine evidence/sources [p. valid rulings] closer, as this entails increased conviction and higher ambitions?
The obligation to a morally responsible Muslim is to use his efforts to learn what is obligatory for him to know, and includes: ‘aqida (statements of faith), purification, prayer, fasting, buying and selling and everything that affects him because of his profession or work, such as being a doctor. If he does not learn this, he is sinful. The purpose of making this obligatory is to make one’s worship and work valid through [p. the knowledge of] its constituents and conditions. Acquiring knowledge beyond this is a sunnah. And let it also be said that the acquisition of knowledge about the obligatory is not limited to reading a text or a book. It is possible that one will get answers to one’s questions about the obligatory knowledge, such as questions about ‘aqida or about a ruling that affects one’s personal worship or work. The best way, however, to understand the rulings is to attend knowledge-based fiqh courses regularly, taught by a qualified person.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: May 31, 2011
Assalama-o-alaikom my question is if some parents forcefully put Quarn-e-Pak in their daughter's stomach and forcefully take half of it and marry her where her residence is, of course her parents know that she wants to marry someone else, then what is the law for this? And if the girl took half of it by pressing her hand in, what is the forgiveness for this, please forgive me.
Thank you for contacting us. There are several general prayers that can be used in connection with childbirth. Here are some examples: “Rabbi hab li milla dunka dhurriyyatan tayyibatan innaka sami ud-dua”. Translation: “My Lord, grant me a pure offspring! You are the Hearer of prayer.” (Quran 3:38)
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: August 16, 2012
The girl I'm going to marry uses her mother's name as her last name, how is this when you're going to do nikah and what is most correct, from what I've heard it's most common for children to have their father's last name, are there any exceptions here? And what's most common when a girl gets married and is going to change her last name, I've googled this a bit and it says that the girl shouldn't remove her father's last name and that this is a sin but how should I approach this when the girl doesn't use her father's last name at all? Hoping for an answer.
There is no requirement for girls, or boys, to have a surname after their father. A person’s full name can even be without a surname. In general, one can have an arbitrary name as long as it does not have a meaning that conflicts with the fundamentals of the Islamic faith.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: March 19, 2013
Can you explain a little bit about what Sharia is? In short, what is Sharia, where in the world is Sharia practiced, and is the Sharia that is practiced as it is described from a religious standpoint (does it have any basis in the Quran)?
Sharia is the divine law. It is a set of rules that God commands humans to live by. It makes clear to us what we should do and what we should not do, and its rules are intended to protect humans from evil and to make all aspects of their lives useful and enjoyable. Sharia is an all-encompassing expression of Allah’s will for both the spiritual and social lives of humans through commandments, prohibitions, or permissions.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: September 24, 2008
Salamo aleikom Is it necessary or obligatory to have iqama before prayer for those of us who pray at home? I live alone and pray alone so I believe that iqama is not necessary. If iqama is necessary, do I have to recite it out loud or to myself? And how do you recite iqama? In Muslim countries, they do not have to have iqama before prayer? Thank you
Assalamu alaikum, Thank you for your inquiry. Iqamah is not a requirement when praying alone at home. However, Imam al-Haskafi says: “It is makrooh (disliked) for the traveler to leave both (adhan and iqamah), even when praying alone… unlike the one who prays in a town or village where there is a mosque, regardless of whether the prayer is offered in congregation or not. It is not makrooh to leave the adhan and iqamah, since the adhan of the area is sufficient for him. (al-Durr al-Mukhtar, 2/63, Dar al-Kutub al-Ilmiyah Beirut) At the same time, some scholars are of the opinion that it is still permissible to say the adhan and iqamah even when praying alone at home. Al-Marghinani writes in his masterpiece of Hanafi-fiqh: “If one prays at home in a town, one says both the adhan and iqamah so that the prayer becomes like a congregation (jama’ah). However, if one omits both, this is permissible. This is because of the statement of Ibn Mas’ud (may Allah be pleased with him): “The adhan of the city is sufficient for us.” (Al-Hidayah, 1/45, Dar Ihya al-Turath al-Arabi Beirut) It can thus be concluded that it is not necessary for you to say the iqamah when praying at home alone. And Allah knows best. Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: January 21, 2009
Lately, I have been missing my prayers for no reason. I don't know what is wrong with me. It seems like I have just forgotten the importance of prayer. I was wondering if you could remind me of the importance of the reward for praying and at the right time. Likewise, remind me of the punishment for missing prayers with the intention of catching up and missing them altogether. I remember from the past that this type of information had a great influence on me.
Wa alaykum assalam wa rahmatullah wa barakatuh In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “The first thing that will be judged of a person’s deeds on the Day of Judgment is prayer. If it is in order, he will pass the test and succeed. If it is defective, he will not pass the test and will be a loser.” (Tirmidhi) Abdullah bin Amr bin al-As said that one day the Prophet (peace be upon him) mentioned prayer by saying: “If someone takes his prayers seriously, it will be a light, proof and salvation for him on the Day of Judgment. But if someone does not take his prayers seriously, it will not be a light, proof or salvation for him. And on the Day of Judgment he will be associated with Qarun, Pharaoh, Haman and Ubayy bin Khalaf (a great enemy of Islam among the Quraish). (Ahmad, Darimi and Baihaqi) Umar ibn al-Khattab narrated that a man asked the Prophet: “Messenger, which deed is most beloved to Allah the Most High?” The Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “Prayer at its proper time. One who does not pray has no religion. Prayer is the main pillar of religion.” (Baihaqi) After Umar (may Allah be pleased with him) was stabbed, it was said to him: “Al-salah, ya amir al-mumineen (Prayer, Commander of the Faithful)!” He said: “Yes, indeed! If anyone misses prayers, he has no share in Islam.” Then he prayed while his wound was bleeding. When Ali (may Allah be pleased with him) was asked about a woman who did not pray, he replied: “Allah will not accept the prayers of the following three types of people: A leader who is hated by his nation, a master who oppresses his servant after making a deal to set him free, one who does not pray at the right time.” (Abu Dawud) Below are some hadiths from Riyad al-Salihin by Imam al-Nawawi, chapter: The Excellence of Prayers: Abu Huraira (may Allah be pleased with him) narrated that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “If one of you had a river in front of his house and bathed in it five times a day, would any dirt remain on his body?” The Prophet’s companions replied, “No dirt remains on his body.” The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) added: “The same is true of the five prayers. Allah wipes out the sins of a person because of them.” Jabir narrated that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “The metaphor of the five prayers is that of a large flowing river at the door, in which one has washed himself five times a day.” (Muslim) Ibn Mas’ud narrated that a man was kissed by a woman and went to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) and told him about it. Allah revealed: “Establish prayer at the ends of the day and at the close of the night. Indeed, good deeds drive away evil deeds.” (11:114). The man said: “O Messenger of Allah, is this for me?” He said: “It is for every single person in my community.” (Mttafaq alaih) Abu Hurayra narrated that the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “The five prayers and from Jumu’ah (Friday prayer) to the next Jumu’ah are expiation for what is between them, as long as one does not commit major sins.” (Muslim) Uthman ibn Affan said, “I heard the Messenger of Allah (may Allah bless him and grant him peace) say: “There is no Muslim man who, when the time for the prescribed prayer arrives, performs wudu in the best way possible and prays and bows humbly, but that prayer becomes an expiation for his previous sins as long as he has not committed any major sin. This will always be the case. (Muslim) Wassalam Translated by Javaria T., source: sunnipath.com
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: May 21, 2009
Assalama o aleykum I have some basic questions about namaz (according to Hanafi fikh). What I am wondering is when one reads 4 muakkadah sunnah, and 4 ghair muakkadah sunnah, should one read verses from the Quran in the 3rd and 4th rakaht? I know that one only reads in the first 2 rakaht in farz. But I am a little unsure about sunnah. And possibly in what order should one read surahs from the Quran in namaz? And when one reads 4 ghair muakkadah sunnah, should one read durood sharif when sitting in 2 rakaht, before standing up for the 3rd? Is it obligatory? Or are there divided opinions about reading durood sharif or not? JazakhAllah khair
Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullah, Thank you for your inquiry. 1) It is obligatory (wajib) to recite both Surah al-Fatiha and another Surah (or at least 3 verses) from the Quran in the first two units (rak’ahs) of the fard prayer and in all units of the wajib, sunnah or nafl prayers. In the last two units of the fard prayer, it is sunnah (read: according to the custom of the Prophet, peace be upon him,) to recite only Al-Fatiha. Nothing else is permissible after that. The recitation of the Surahs must be in order, so that the Surah recited in the subsequent rak’ah comes after the Surah in the previous rak’ah of the Quran. It is highly disliked (makruh tahriman) to recite backwards. More precisely, order means the following: a) Reciting successive Surahs of the Quran in successive rak’ahs. For example, reciting surah al-Fil (105) in the first rak’ah and surah Quraysh (106) in the second. b) Or skip two consecutive small surahs as it is disliked (makruh) to skip just one. For example, Surah Ikhlas (112) should not be recited after Surah Nasr (110) as Surah Lahab (111) is in the middle of these two. However, if the middle surah is so long that its recitation in the following rak’ah is much longer than the previous rak’ah, there is no problem in skipping this surah. For example, reciting Surah al-Tin (95) followed by Surah al-Qadr (97), and skipping Surah al-Alaq (96) which is longer than Surah al-Tin. (al-Durr al-Mukhtar, according to Bahar-e-Shariat, 1/236-37, Maktaba Islamiyya) 2) One can recite both durood sharif (salawat) and dua or only durood after tashahhud in the first qa’da (sitting position) in sunnah ghair muakkadah (non-emphasized sunnah), or the nafl prayer which consists of four rak’ahs. But it is not obligatory. In other words, it is not problematic to recite only tashahhud and stand up for the third rak’ah. Moreover, it is important to emphasize that it is not permissible to recite anything more than only tashahhud in all other types of prayers, i.e. in fard, wajib and sunnah muakkadah (emphasized sunnah). If one manages to recite “allahumma salli ala muhammadin” out of forgetfulness, for example, one must perform sajdah al-sahw to make up for this mistake. And Allah knows best. Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: January 18, 2011
AWW. Can one only read Faradh if one is very busy, if one is for example at university etc. and only has a few minutes to spare? In which cases can one only read Faradh? Thinking of the Fajr, Zuhr, Maghrib and Isha prayers. Jhazak allah khair.
Assalamu alaikum, Thank you for your inquiry. The minimum that one prays in addition to the fard units is the following: Fajr: 2 sunnahs before fard Zhur: 4 sunnahs before and 2 after fard Maghrib: 2 sunnahs after fard Isha: 2 sunnahs after fard + 3 witr All the sunnah units mentioned above are muakkadah, meaning that they cannot be omitted without a reason. In such a situation where there is not enough time to pray both sunnah and fard, the fard units must be prioritized. The fard units must therefore not be omitted on the basis that there is not enough time to include the sunnah units in the prayer. At the same time, it is important that one does not omit the three witr units at the isha prayer in such cases. And Allah knows best. Najeeb Naz Further Reading: Classification of Actions
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: June 9, 2011
I have a question. If one prays alone somewhere/at home, can one recite tilawat like one does in jamaat? That is, not "inside oneself" but so that if someone is in the room, they can clearly hear Surah Fateha etc. If one can do that, is it required that one be completely alone in the room/at home so that no one else can hear? wasalam
Assalamu alaikum, Takk for din henvendelse. It is obligatory (wajib) for the imam to recite aloud in the Fajr, Maghrib, Isha, Friday prayers, Eid prayers and Tarawih prayers. Someone who prays fajr, maghrib, isha or tarawih alone can choose to recite loudly or softly. It is preferable for the person praying to recite aloud as in jama’ah (congregational prayer) (al-Hidayah, 1/54). If the person chooses to recite aloud, it should be recited loudly enough for the person to hear the sound. This can be done even if others are present and listening to what is being recited. And Allah knows best. Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: July 16, 2011
Nafal prayer is it permissible to read it at any time of the day or is it makhroh. At 10:00 in the morning for example.
Assalamu alaikum, Thank you for your inquiry. Nafl can be performed at any time of the day except for the times when it is not permissible to pray (disliked times). On the link below you can read more about which times this applies. Different times for prayer And Allah knows best. Wassalam Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: May 9, 2011
Hi, I'm wondering if it's legal to call a child Mohammad as their first name. We Pakistanis often have Mohammad as a first/middle name in addition to another name that is most commonly used. I want to call my child Mohammad followed by a surname that becomes the family name, is this legal? I've heard mixed opinions.
There is no problem in naming the child Muhammad.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: June 22, 2011
Assalamualaikum! I really want a tattoo, but I wonder if it is haram? What if I remove it after a couple of years? Thank you!
Tattooing is forbidden in Islam. The Prophet (peace be upon him) cursed both the one who gets a tattoo and the one who does it. (Sahih Bukhari, Sahih Muslim, etc.) And Allah knows best.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: April 15, 2011
hi, what i was wondering was that sleeping over, is it allowed in islam? i am a 14 year old girl, and i have been invited by a friend for a sleeping over. she has invited me and another friend. her father is on vacation, and the only people at home with her are her mother and her 3 sisters. is this allowed?
There is nothing wrong with you staying overnight at your girlfriend’s house, provided there is no non-mehram in the house. A non-mehram is a man who is, in principle, permitted to be married.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: July 19, 2011
I have a question regarding meat flavoring! Some potato chips and the like contain meat flavoring. Wondering if we Muslims can eat these? "aroma = smell"?
It is obligatory to check the contents of food products to avoid consuming something that is forbidden (haram). Several food products, including some types of potato chips, contain substances that are not permitted to be eaten. For more details, see the alwayshalal website (WIM is not responsible for the content of external links).
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: September 6, 2011
Are boys allowed to have sex outside of marriage?
There is no difference between men and women when it comes to the illegality of sex outside of marriage. It is forbidden for both.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: March 6, 2012
Hi! I was born and raised in Norway, and have eaten gelatin all my life, such as candy, chocolate, cheese, etc. Is it true that these contain gelatin from, for example, pigs? I have also heard that many types of shampoo, cream, omega3 (Møllers double) contain this substance?
One should avoid consuming gelatin as it could potentially come from an animal source (which is either not slaughtered according to Islamic regulations or the animal itself is haram). However, if it is made from exclusively non-animal raw materials, it is okay to stock up (for example, when it says “(veg)” before “gelatin”)
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: May 22, 2007
Assalaam alaikum, Shaykh, my question is regarding sisters. If one’s sister is unmarried and due to her picky nature, it seems unlikely that she will get married in the near future, does the responsibility regarding her welfare lie on her father’s shoulders? Considering that she is actually in her mid-30s and her father is in his mid-60s. She works and socializes as she wishes, but she is punctual in her salah (prayer) etc. And I know for sure that she only socializes with her Muslim sisters. The fact that she has refused all the marriage proposals makes my father sinful and the sin in return will fall on me, her younger brother (but the elder of two brothers).Also, I intend to study abroad, the responsibility for my sister will fall on my head if my father passes away, considering the independent nature of women (my sister most definitely included) in the West. For example, I am almost certain that she would not travel abroad with me, and I would probably not be able to afford it (as I am married myself). Shaykh, sorry for the awkward way I have written my question, it is more of a request for advice than a formal question. In any case, thank you for taking the time to consider and hopefully offer a solution to my situation.
In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful. Dear brother, Refusing marriage: Your sister’s refusal to marry is not a sin. Nor is your father to be held responsible if his daughter refuses to marry. Nor is there any sin on you if your sister refuses to marry. That is her prerogative.
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: May 30, 2007
A woman had her monthly bleeding, which lasted only one day. After this, she has white discharge that lasts only one day. Often she has bleeding that lasts one or two days. Based on this, she does ghusl. However, since she still assumed that her bleeding might start again, she waited until the end of the prayer time before performing ghusl. By chance, she missed this prayer. Two days later, the bleeding started again, which lasted six days. Considering that her period of purity between these bleedings did not last fifteen days at a time, she counted it as a period of bleeding of ten consecutive days, should she make up her prayers? Secondly, considering that she has had a period of bleeding for ten days, during which she has made up the prayers (qada) for two days, can these prayers be included? She made up (i.e. made up) her prayers during these days, as she did not know that her period was not completely over.
To answer this question and other questions related to menstruation, one must know the basic principles of menstruation. Namely: 1. The minimum menstrual period is three days. This means that if the bleeding stops for less than three days, it will not be considered menstruation.
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: June 2, 2007
I would like to know what kind of obligations a husband has towards his wife in terms of providing her with separate accommodation. This husband allows his wife to live with his family, which results in her having to share all the household facilities with the rest of his family (kitchen, bathroom). This causes many problems for his wife and she also has no privacy. The husband has the opportunity to provide her with her own accommodation and facilities, but he does not. The wife is having a hard time. Can you please explain from outside the Hanafi school of law how this problem can be resolved? I have heard that Hanafi scholars have guidelines in this area, where it is reported that one's wife has the right to her own accommodation. Is this true?
Sharia has given certain rights to a husband and similarly wives have certain rights. Spouses often fail each other in giving each other their rights. This often leads to conflicts and sometimes marriages break up.
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: June 21, 2007
I recently received the following from someone who is trying to follow the religion sincerely but does not know how to respond to this. I would greatly appreciate your help. May Allah reward you all immensely for all that you do for the ummah: I came across this hadith and was very saddened: Narrated Ibn ‘Abbas: The Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “I was shown the Fire of Hell and the majority of its inhabitants were ungrateful women.” It was asked, “Do they not believe in Allah?” (or are they ungrateful to Allah?) He replied, “They are ungrateful to their husbands and ungrateful to the kindness and good (charitable good deeds) done to them. If you always do good (deeds) to one of them, and if she sees something in you (that she does not like), she will say, “I never received any good from you.” Sahih Bukhari, Volume 1, Book 2, Number 28 Throughout their lives, women tolerate injustices from their husbands. 99% of women are treated like slaves. Islam does not allow women to complain, or react against the injustices committed by their husbands, or misbehave with them, as they do. If women do any of this, Hellfire will be their destiny!! Please comment.
Dear Questioner, I pray that you are in good health and iman. The Hadith literature is a rich and fascinating glimpse into the life of the Prophet (peace be upon him). One of the most incredible aspects of this literature is the fact that many women took part in the preservation and transmission of the Prophet’s legacy.
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: September 28, 2007
Assalamu alaikum, I wanted to get clarification on the explanation given by Shaykh Nuh regarding the proof for wearing the hijab. This is a topic that has been debated a lot since the hijab ban in France and I am now unsure where the claim comes from. Assalamu alaikum, I wanted to get clarification on the explanation given by Shaykh Nuh regarding the proof for wearing the hijab. This is a topic that has been debated a lot since the hijab ban in France and I am now unsure where the claim comes from. Shaykh Nuh writes: “There is no other lexical meaning in which the word khimar can be constructed. The wording that is commanded, however, and that they should draw their head coverings over their chests, sometimes confuses those who are not specialists in the science of the Qur’an, and indeed, interpreting the Qur’an sometimes requires a deep knowledge of the historical circumstances surrounding the various verses that were revealed. In this case, the elliptical form of the divine command is because the women who lived at the time of the revelation wore head coverings tied behind their necks, as some village women still do in Muslim countries, leaving the front of the neck uncovered, as well as the opening (Ar. singular jayb, plural juyub, translated as “breast” in the verse above) at the top of the garment. The Islamic revelation confirmed the practice of covering the head, understood from the use of the word khimar in the verse, but also explained that the tradition of that time was not sufficient and therefore the women tied the head covering in front and let it cover down to hide the neck and the opening of the garment at the top.” I am a little confused as to how the wording used in these individual verses is considered an order. My previous understanding regarding the evidence for hijab was that the specifics of the order came from the hadith in Abu Dawood regarding the Prophet (peace be upon him) emphasizing to Asma that only the face and hands should be shown. Could you please clarify what makes the wording/grammar in the verses referenced above that makes them evidence for the wearing of hijab obligatory? I am not sure how the word “khimar” alone is used as evidence that hijab is required.
In the name of Allah, the Most Merciful, the Merciful. Praise be to Allah. May the peace and blessings of Allah be upon our beloved Prophet. Dear sister, The commandment of hijab is obvious when we examine the grammatical structure of this verse: إِلاَّ مَا ظَهَرَ مِنْهَا وَلْيَضْرِبْنَ بِخُمُرِهِنَّ عَلَى جُيُوبِهِنَّ
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: May 6, 2008
Salaam aleekum I'm wondering what rules apply after a miscarriage. Are they the same rules that a woman follows after a normal birth? For example, the 40 days and such? Does it matter how far along a woman was before the miscarriage?
Thank you for your inquiry. The same rules apply to miscarriage as to normal birth. It does not matter how far along the woman is before the miscarriage occurs.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: October 17, 2007
Can you have sex with your wife after her period has ended, but before she has taken a shower? What if her period ends a few days earlier than normal. What then? Thank you.
All praise belongs to Allah, the Almighty. Peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad, the last of the prophets, and may God be pleased with all the followers of Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) and his progeny. Thank you for submitting your question. Regarding intercourse after menstruation, it is important to consider the following: If menstruation ends after ten days, which is the maximum menstrual period, then there is no problem in having intercourse with one’s wife before she has performed ghusl (shower/bath).
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: October 6, 2008
salam o'alaikom Sometimes when I finish praying when I check below I find some mist like deposit on the tip of my private part, do I have to do wudu again and do the salat again or should I just do wudu for the new salat. Jazakom Allahwakhair
Thank you for your inquiry. Since this happens irregularly as you describe in your inquiry, there are two scenarios: 1. That it happens before or during salah 2. Or after salah
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: October 29, 2008
salam o3alaikom I have a question about ghusl, I know that you should start with wudu first, then ghusl comes. but when I do ghusl and I have gas in my stomach and I let it out, do I have to do wudu and ghusl again or should I finish ghusl and just do wudu again. Then I have another question. every time I wake up I find something in my underwear but I'm not sure if it's Mani, Madhi or Wadi so it always ends up with me doing ghusl, and sometimes I find it quite tiring. I apologize for the way I've written it, but I hope dear brothers that you can answer me on this. wasalam o3alaikom
Thank you for submitting your question. Wudu before ghusl is not necessary, but rather a sunnah. One does not need to repeat wudu after ghusl, regardless of whether one has performed wudu before ghusl or not, unless one has done something that invalidates wudu. In other words, ghusl is valid even if one has not performed wudu before it, or if one releases air from one’s stomach during ghusl.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 10, 2008
Hi, I have a question regarding sexual intercourse within Islam. I am wondering if as a girl I have to make myself clean (pak/tahir) in the same way after sexual intercourse as after menstruation? or is there a difference, or is there something else I also have to do in addition? Another thing I was wondering was, do I need to become clean (pak/tahir) after intimate activity in the genitals, but without sexual intercourse taking place? [The italics are an adapted rewording of the original text]
Thank you for your inquiry. Ghusl is obligatory if one or more of the following conditions are present: Ejaculation that occurs only due to shahwah (sexual desire), and not for any other reason. This applies both in the form of a “wet dream” or in a waking state. There is no distinction between men and women here.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: December 11, 2008
What is the quickest way to perform ghusl while fulfilling all the requirements related to purification? I am talking about ghusl which is required for intercourse, menstruation, etc. Thank you
Ghusl (ritual shower) becomes obligatory on three occasions: After sexual intercourse, whether it leads to ejaculation/orgasm or not. After ejaculation/orgasm that occurs due to sexual desire. At the end of menstruation and postpartum period.
Answered by: Mohammad Juned
Published on: December 16, 2008
Why do we have to trim our pubic and armpit hair? Do we have to continue to do so?
Al-Salam `alaykum, The hair in the lower abdomen and below the elbows should be removed. It is disliked to let it grow until it becomes long. It is recommended to do this on a weekly basis, ideally on Fridays (before the Friday prayer). Extending this to at least once every 15 days is not disliked, but beyond this is blameworthy, and later than 40 days is sinful. (Tahtawi, Hashiyat al-Tahtawi ‘ala al-Maraqi al-Falah)
Answered by: M. Azhar
Published on: September 1, 2011
Hi, I was wondering if the fast is broken if you bite your lip and get a little blood in your mouth?
Thank you for your inquiry. The fast is not broken by getting blood in the mouth and then spitting it out again. However, if you manage to swallow the blood, the fast is invalidated.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: September 2, 2011
Salam. Can one fast without praying Taraweeh the night before, or is the fast then invalid?
Thank you for your inquiry. The fast will be valid regardless of whether one has prayed the tarawih prayer or not. However, not praying tarawih is blameworthy.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: September 9, 2011
Is it correct that one must first make up for the days of fasting from Ramadan and then fast six days in Shawwal? I have heard that one must first make up for the days one has missed in Ramadan, because it is obligatory (fard) and then fast six days in Shawwal, because it is sunnah/voluntary?
Thank you for your inquiry. 1. Islamic jurists (fuqaha) say that when one fasts six days in Shawwal, one gets a reward for performing the sunnah (of fasting six days in Shawwal) regardless. This also applies if one makes up for his fasts from Ramadan.
Answered by: Javaria T
Published on: July 26, 2012
Salam aleikum! What about using miswak while fasting? Can one have water in their mouth while using miswak, or does that break the fast? JazakhAllah khair for the answer.
Thank you for your inquiry. It is sunnah (an act performed and loved by the beloved Prophet, peace be upon him) to use miswak/siwak to brush teeth, and it is permissible to use it during fasting as well.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: July 26, 2012
Assalamu Aleykum! I was wondering about something, I'll try my best to explain myself.. I forgot to say what we say before we fast (the prayer) yesterday but I'm fasting anyway since I plan to fast the whole month.. Does it matter if I forgot to say that prayer or whatever it's called:/ 'before my fast?
Thank you for your inquiry. “It is important that one has a clear intention, niyyah, before starting prayer, fasting, etc. The intention is a purposeful, unambiguous determination you have in your heart about the action you are about to perform. For example, when you get up to eat the dawn meal (sehri) you are aware that you want to fast.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: August 4, 2012
Salam! I wonder if it is permissible to wear deodorant and perfume while fasting? Surely it is something that gets absorbed into the skin?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is not problematic to use deodorant/perfume during fasting.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: February 25, 2010
Tawaf-e-Wida and Wudu
Wudu is necessary (wajib) to perform tawaf. Tawaf-e-wida is also wajib in hajj. If you have performed tawaf-e-wida without wudu (as your email suggests), it means that you have missed a wajib in hajj. When this happens, it must be replaced with a dam (sacrifice a goat, a sheep, etc.).
Answered by: najeeb Naz
Published on: May 24, 2007
I am impatient and waiting to perform Umrah.
I am a 19 year old girl, and compared to many others still very young. For two years now I have been waiting to go to Saudi Arabia and wanted to perform Umrah. But I have not been able to do so. I was born Muslim and follow Islam from the heart. However, I am currently a practicing Muslim and have been performing the prayer (namaz/salah) every day for two years now. I started wearing the hijab a year ago.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: August 9, 2010
Salam. I am wondering if it is permissible in Islam to have intercourse with one's wife while on hajj? and possibly when it is permissible?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is not permissible to have sexual intercourse during Hajj from the time one assumes ihram until one has performed tawaf ziyarat (also called tawaf ifadah). One assumes ihram for Hajj usually on the 8th.
Answered by: najeeb Naz
Published on: August 23, 2012
Hi, I'm wondering who can pay for an umrah/hajj trip? Can I, as a daughter, give an umrah trip as a gift to my parents even if they can afford to pay for it themselves and they have an adult son who could also do it. Thank you very much for the work you do.?
You are doing yourself a great favor by paying for your parents’ Umrah. This will, insha’Allah, ensure you a lot of reward and blessings. This is regardless of whether they themselves can afford to do this – or whether there are other people who can also pay for them.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: August 29, 2012
1. What about a pilgrim who is unable to stay overnight in Mina due to no tents. Is there any restriction that everyone must stay there until Salat-e-Fajar before heading to Arafat and if a person does not do this then Hajj will not be complete? 2. What about transportation from Mina to Arafat. If the bus time to Arafat is after Maghrib Salaat, or late in the evening and on the night of 8 Dhul Hajj (before Salaat Fajar)?
1) Staying overnight in Mina is Sunnah. If for some reason one is unable to stay overnight there, it will not have any consequence on the validity of the Hajj. However, it is an act that is against the Sunnah. 2) It is obligatory to stay on the plain of Arafat (wuquf Arafat) for a while between the time when the sun begins to leave the zenith (its highest point in the sky) on the 9th of Dhul-Hajj and before the time of Fajr on the 10th of Dhul-Hajj occurs.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: October 30, 2012
What is Takbir al-Tashreeq and when is it recited?
Takbir al-Tashriq is a practice that has been handed down from the previous generations of Muslims with reference to Sayyiduna ‘Ali and Ibn Mas’ud (may Allah be pleased with them) in the collection of Ibn Abi Shayba [Ibn al-Humam, Fath al-Qadir]. This is therefore a practice that has its roots from the companions of the Prophet (peace be upon him) and is therefore considered authentic and meritorious.
Answered by: najeeb Naz
Published on: June 24, 2007
Is the Prophet, peace be upon him, a healer of diseases? I came across a way of sending blessings (salaam) to the Prophet, peace be upon him, which describes him as a “healer of diseases and medicine for hearts.” Is it permissible to portray the Prophet, peace be upon him, as a “healer of diseases”? And is this way of sending blessings different from that in Salat al-Tibbiyya?
Know that the school of Ahl al-Sunnah takes the position that it is obligatory to attribute all actions to Allah the Exalted. The Quran is clear about this when it says: “Allah is the Creator of all things” (39:62). “And Allah created you and what you do” (37:96). “Say everything is from Allah” (4:78).
Answered by: Khurram Khan
Published on: September 28, 2007
I need guidance and advice regarding protection against human black magic and evil jinn. I have been having problems for a while now. Where can I get guidance and advice?
Black magic (sihr) is something that definitely exists and causes harm to people. The Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) was also affected by black magic. A Jew named Labid ibn Asim who outwardly pretended to be a believer (munafiq, hypocrite) performed black magic on the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him).
Answered by: Khudija Mahmood
Published on: June 20, 2008
What are jinn, and what do they mean in daily life?
Allah mentions the jinn in the following way in the Quran: “We created the jinn before from blazing fire.” (15:27) The jinn are also part of Allah’s creation, and will, just like humans, have to answer for their actions on the Day of Judgment.
Answered by: M Azhar
Published on: October 6, 2008
Salamoalaikom I was wondering that when we read la ilaha illallaho Muhammad darsololla and when we read Muhammad darasolollah then why do we kiss our eyes. Salamoalaikom
Thank you for your inquiry. Kissing the thumbs and rubbing them over the eyes after hearing “ash’hadu anna Muhammadar-rasul Allah” in the adhan is an action characterized as mustahabb by many scholars.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rahman Naz
Published on: November 28, 2008
What does Islam have to do with "Healing"?
Thank you for your inquiry. The term healing encompasses many different methods, but I assume you mean different forms of alternative medicine or that which falls outside of regular medical practice.
Answered by: Noman Ahmed
Published on: December 9, 2008
According to some, the Prophet (peace be upon him) is present everywhere, as well as omnipresent like Allah, while other schools say that this is not the case. Can you clarify for me the TRUE ISLAMIC position on this matter based on traditional Islam? I have recently read some articles that explain that, yes, the Prophet (peace be upon him) is hazir and nazir because he receives darood from the angels and possesses the power to receive salaam from everyone in the entire world, which makes him hazir and nazir, meaning everywhere and at all times...
This debate is foreign to me. Authentic hadiths confirm that Allah makes the Prophet (peace be upon him) acquainted with the deeds of his people. Thus, it is “as if” he is present, through his knowledge of the actions of his people.
Answered by: M. Azhar
Published on: April 26, 2009
Salaam aleekum. I have a small question. What is sadqa and how does one give sadqa?
Thank you for your inquiry. The term sadaqah (plural sadaqat) means “voluntary charity”. Anything given with the intention of reward (ajr or sawab) from Allah is sadaqah. It can be given to the needy, whether they are relatives, friends or other people in the community.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: September 8, 2009
Aslama o ALikum I am wondering, how much fitrana should I pay to the mosque, how much per person? I am also wondering how much a person should pay zakaat, if one has gold worth around 40 thousand kroner. That is about 150 grams of gold is about 17 tolles. I would like you to answer me as soon as possible. to my email. thank you Allah hafiz
Thank you for your inquiry. The minimum amount for fitrana or sadaqah al-fitr is this year (2009) approximately 30 kroner per person (based on the price of approximately 2 kilos of flour), and the maximum is 150 kroner (based on approximately 4 kilos of dates). One can choose to give fitrana according to one of these two.
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: February 16, 2010
AA, If we want to pay zakat, what is most important first? We also have a debt where we pay interest that we cannot get rid of, something we want to finish as soon as possible because the debt is constantly growing. What should we do, pay zakat first or pay off the loan we have? Hope to get a quick answer...
Thank you for your inquiry. Giving the obligatory alms (zakah or zakat) is obligatory on every Muslim who possesses the nisab for a whole year. The nisab for zakah is, among other things, approximately 87.48 grams of gold, 612.36 grams of silver, or cash equivalent to the value of 612.36 silver if one has neither gold nor silver.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: March 1, 2010
Assalamo alaikom! I refer to a previous question (Is it permissible to donate haram items?) where it was answered that everything that is haram to own and use is haram to donate. Does this also apply to interest? Jazakallah khair
In the name of Allah, the Most Merciful, the Merciful. Thank you for your inquiry. There is a general rule that applies to all forbidden assets and illegal income. These cannot be donated. By donation here is meant giving something away as sadaqa. That is, giving something away with the intention of receiving reward for it from Allah.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: January 10, 2011
Hi Every year at the end of the year you get written interest from the bank on money you have in your savings account. I know that receiving/giving interest is illegal in Islam, except in special cases. I plan to give this interest to charity or donate it to a mosque anyway. Can you get ajr for that?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is not correct to give this money to a mosque. However, it can be used for other charitable purposes, but without the intention of sadqa/sawab.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
Published on: February 5, 2012
Hi, everyone in Norway is taxed, tax deducted from our salary. This money is given to something good in society. The Norwegian state collects the amount from every citizen in Norway, can we call this zakaht,? And why not when this money goes to roads, schools, medicines, aid abroad, etc. The money goes not only to Norwegians, but to more Muslims who use the roads, education, medicine, etc.
In the name of Allah, the Most Merciful, the Ever-Merciful. Thank you for your inquiry. There is a difference between the state tax and zakah (or zakat).
Answered by: Najeeb ur Rehman Naz
Published on: February 9, 2016
Is talaq valid if the woman is in her menstrual period?
Thank you for your inquiry. It is sinful to give talaq (divorce) while the woman is menstruating. However, the talaq will be valid. The waiting period of the woman will be extended. She must wait for another menstrual cycle before the idda begins.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: January 26, 2016
In case of second talaq, one can only do ruju. Or is a new nikah required? Is a new nikah required at all, after the 1st or 2nd?
Thank you for your inquiry. If the husband pronounces one or two verbal talaqs (divorces) (sarih) then it will be considered as talaq-raj’i. With such a divorce, the spouses can do ruju (return) without a new nikah (marriage contract). But ruju must take place before the expiry of the iddat period. After that, a new Nikah is required.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
Salam aleikum. I don't know where to send the question so I'm sending it here. I wonder if I can get a complement on the different divorces in Islam. I'm thinking especially about women's rights. I read a hadith where a woman came to the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) and said that even though there was nothing wrong with her husband, she wanted a divorce. The Prophet then asked if she was willing to give some gift in return. Then they divorced, but I don't remember in what way, whether the Prophet made her husband do it or whether he gave her a divorce. Which hadith is this? Is it true that the Prophet never prevented a woman who wanted a divorce from getting a divorce? Because if so, how can it be right for people nowadays to prevent women from doing so?
Thank you for your inquiry to us. When a woman does not want to live with her husband, for any valid reason, she can apply for divorce. This is called khul”a. Everything from dissatisfaction with the husband’s appearance to the husband subjecting his wife to abuse are valid reasons for a khul”a. Khul”a can be applied for through the court. It involves the woman agreeing to repay what she has received from her husband as dowry (mahr) in return for the dissolution of the marriage. The parties also have the opportunity to agree on an amount that is less or more than the value of the dowry.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
I have a problem and want to clarify my situation with a Muslim's wife. It started with me and my husband having a bad day and we started arguing after some heated discussions. The argument quickly led to both of us losing our temper. I said things that I shouldn't have said and my husband said the following words: "I am giving you talaq". After hearing that sentence, my world fell apart. When things calmed down a bit, he started saying that he was just trying to scare me and he never said the word "talaq". He said something else, and that I had heard wrong. I am now very confused whether talaq has been done or not. Are we married or divorced now? He has put his hand on the Quran and says that he did not say that he is giving me talaq. Please guide a confused sister!
If your husband said: “I give you talaq”, it became a talaq raj”i. This despite the fact that he now says that he said it just to scare you. I assume that he said it only once or twice, and not three times. Because if he said it three times then it is talaq mughallazah, i.e. divorce immediately without any possibility of ruju” (to repent). While talaq raj”i means that one has the possibility of ruju” and can be together as a married couple again without further ado.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
Due to various circumstances, I wish to divorce my Pakistani husband who has not lived with us and who has not supported the children. (The post has been significantly shortened and anonymized)
In Pakistan you have the option of applying for something called “khul”a”, i.e. divorce by the woman. This is done through the judiciary and can probably be arranged by consulting with some lawyer down there. The prerequisite for a woman to apply for khul”a is that she has a valid reason to have the marriage dissolved. The situation you have described in your email probably forms such a basis for khul”a.
Answered by: Najeeb-ur-Rehman Naz
Published on: November 9, 2016
I have a question regarding divorce. In a situation where a husband and wife are at different jobs and they argue over the phone. Both hang up the phone. The husband does not say a word of divorce to his wife, because he does not really want to divorce her.
All praise belongs to Allah, the Almighty. Peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad, the last of the prophets, and may God be pleased with all the followers of Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) and his progeny. Thank you for submitting your question. In none of the cases described in the question is the marriage dissolved. It is worth noting that a divorce does not become effective by saying “talaq” to oneself – whether verbally or in writing.
Answered by: Najeeb Naz
